2014年3月31日星期一

Le dernier examen SAP C-TSCM52-66 gratuit Télécharger

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Code d'Examen: C-TSCM52-66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which procurement elements can be created in Purchasing with automatic purchase order
generation?(Choose two)
A. Requests for quotation (RFQ)
B. Contract release orders
C. Purchase orders
D. Delivery schedules
Answer: B,C

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6. Which value of the creation indicator is shown in the tab Contact person when you create a
purchase requisition manually?
A. Production Order
B. Direct procurement
C. Realtime
D. Material requirements planning
Answer: C

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7. Where do you define a fixed vendor for a specific period in time?
A. In the info record at client level (regular vendor)
B. In the quota arrangement at plant level
C. In the source list at plant level
D. In the material master at plant level
Answer: C

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8. What are characteristics of material valuation at the moving average price?(Choose two)
A. If you book a subsequent debit for a quantity higher than the total quantity of valuated stock
then a price difference posting is generated.
B. If the price in the purchase order is different from the moving average price then a price
difference posting is generated at goods receipt.
C. The moving average price is equal to the total value divided by total quantity of valuated stock.
D. Goods movements are always valuated based on the moving average price from the material
master record.
Answer: A,C

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9. You have received an order confirmation from a vendor.
What do you have to do before you can enter the confirmed delivery date and confirmed quantity in
a purchase order item?
A. Set the Goods Receipt indicator.
B. Set the Confirmation Received indicator in the header.
C. Use a confirmation control key in the relevant purchase order item.
D. Set the Acknowledgement Required indicator in the vendor master of the relevant vendor.
Answer: C

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10. What does an account group control when you create vendor master records?(Choose three)
A. The partner determination procedure
B. The definition whether the vendor master record is a one-time account or not
C. The possible data retention levels
D. The reconciliation account in general ledger
E. The possible payment terms
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing?(Choose three)
A. The movement type short text and the reasons for movement
B. The indicator for automatic creation of storage location data in the material master record at the
time of the first goods receipt
C. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with the
movement type
D. The quantity and value updates for postings with the movement type
E. The account modification for transactions and events with active account grouping in the table of
account keys
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 In a vendor master record, you enter a different vendor as a partner with the partner role
(partner function) of Invoicing Party.
What is the function of this partner role in Materials Management?
A. This partner automatically receives copies of all messages relating to purchasing documents.
B. This partner is proposed when you enter an invoice with reference to purchase orders.
C. All unplanned delivery costs with reference to purchase orders are billed to this partner.
D. Return deliveries with reference to purchase orders must be sent to this partner.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following are SAP Solution Manager usage scenarios?(Choose two)
A. Legacy system data mapping
B. Implementation of SAP solutions
C. User productivity monitoring
D. Service desk
Answer: B,D

SAP   C-TSCM52-66   certification C-TSCM52-66   C-TSCM52-66 examen

NO.5 Which are the configuration options that can be defined to post unplanned delivery
costs?(Choose three)
A. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to separate G/L accounts
B. The unplanned delivery costs are to be distributed prorated to calculated invoice items
C. The unplanned delivery costs can be posted by rules defined within a BAdI
D. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to a price difference account
E. The unplanned delivery costs are to be split in equal shares across the invoice items
Answer: A,B,C

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C-FSUTIL-60 dernières questions d'examen certification SAP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: C-FSUTIL-60
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Associate - Utilities with SAP ERP 6.0 (C_FSUTIL_60))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which criteria are used to group the underlying FICA documents for transfer to General Ledger
Accounting? (Choose three)
A. Creation date
B. Currency
C. Transaction
D. Segment
E. Company code
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 On May 15, you try to process dunning for an account with an issue date of May 10.
Why does dunning fail to produce a result?
A. A dunning block which expired on May 13 was set on the contract account.
B. A dunning block which expired on May 13 was set on the business partner.
C. A dunning block which began on May 13 was set on the business partner.
D. A dunning block which began on May 13 was set on the contract account.
Answer: A

SAP   C-FSUTIL-60   C-FSUTIL-60   C-FSUTIL-60

NO.3 A financial clerk is posting an FI-CA document.
Which scenarios can be posted? (Choose three)
A. The document has statistical general ledger items totaling $25.
B. The document has one statistical business partner item totaling $25.
C. The document has two business partner items totaling $25 and one general ledger item totaling
$25.
D. The document has two business partner items totaling $25 and two general ledger items totaling
$25.
E. The document has two business partner items totaling $0 and one general ledger item totaling
$25.
Answer: B,C,D

SAP   C-FSUTIL-60 examen   C-FSUTIL-60 examen

NO.4 Which processes can be directly called within the account display transaction? (Choose three)
A. Change contract
B. Display returns history
C. Mass change
D. Create budget billing plan
E. Display installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which object can be used in monitoring (EL31) to view meter reading results?
A. Contract
B. Device location
C. Connection object
D. Contract account
Answer: A

SAP   certification C-FSUTIL-60   C-FSUTIL-60 examen

NO.6 A customer moves in to a premise and requests electricity service starting on June 7.
According to the schedule records, the scheduled meter reading date is June 29, the scheduled
billing date is July 1, and the allocation date for billing is June 30.
Given that batch billing is executed every night with all portions included, what is the first day the
customer's contract could be billed?
A. July 1
B. June 30
C. June 7
D. June 29
Answer: A

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10. Which of the following must exist before an agent can create an automatic billing document?
A. Validated meter reading result
B. Posted payment
C. Billable billing order
D. Active budget billing plan
Answer: C

SAP examen   certification C-FSUTIL-60   C-FSUTIL-60

NO.7 You enter a meter reading manually and receive a message informing you that the reading
failed a relative tolerance validation.
What type of meter reading validation is this?
A. Meter reading control validation
B. Fixed validation
C. Independent validation
D. Dependent validation
Answer: C

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NO.8 A tariff requires that for the same contract account, the consumption from the water meter is
used to bill the water consumption charge and the waste water consumption charge.
How can the water meter be installed to meet this tariff requirement?
A. Technically installed to waste installation; billing installed to water installation
B. Fully installed to water installation; technically installed to waste water installation
C. Fully installed to water installation; billing installed to waste water installation
D. Technically installed to water installation; billing installed to waste water installation
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the required technical master data for the SAP IS-U move-in?
A.Connection object
Installation
Premise
B.Contract account
Installation
Premise
C.Contract
Installation
Premise
D.Connection object
Installation
Device
Answer: A

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Meilleur Isilon E20-553 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: E20-553
Nom d'Examen: Isilon (Isilon Infrastructure Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 An Isilon customer would like to have different snapshot policies and schedules on the same
directory. Why is this possible on an Isilon cluster?
A. SnapshotIQ snaps at the directory level not the volume level
B. All snapshots are scheduled through the CLI
C. SnapshotIQ uses a third-party product to create different schedules and policies on a directory
D. SnapshotIQ snaps at the volume level not the directory level
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the default method in which Isilon OneFS uses SSDs?
A. Metadata read acceleration
B. Metadata read/write acceleration
C. Data on SSDs
D. Avoid SSDs
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which impact policies are available on an Isilon cluster?
A. High, Medium, Low, Paused
B. High, Medium, Low, Default
C. High, Medium, Low, Auto
D. ASAP , High, Medium, Low
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which methods of Isilon OneFS administration are enforced by RBAC?
A. Platform API, command line, and web administration interface
B. Command line, InsightIQ, and web administration interface
C. SNMP and web administration interface
D. Command line, web administration interface, and SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.5 An Isilon customer currently has an 8-node cluster of older X-Series nodes. They are planning
several upgrades over the next three years in the following stages:
-Stage 1: Add 2 X-Series nodes to meet performance growth -Stage 2: Add 4 NL-Series nodes to
meet archive capacity growth -Stage 3: Add 10 New X-Series nodes as a hardware refresh -Stage 4:
Remove older X-Series nodes
At which stage will a SmartPool license be required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

Isilon   E20-553 examen   E20-553   E20-553

NO.6 Which block size does Isilon SyncIQ use to transfer data?
A. 2 KB
B. 4 KB
C. 6 KB
D. 8 KB
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which node type adds CPU, memory, and Fibre Channel connectivity?
A. Backup Accelerator node
B. Performance Accelerator node
C. X-Series node
D. NL-Series node
Answer: A

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NO.8 An Isilon customer has two 5-node clusters, one for production and one for disaster recovery
(DR). The customer's workflows are replicated to the DR cluster through SyncIQ on individual
schedules. They have shutdown their production cluster for scheduled maintenance, failed over to
the DR cluster, and are currently operating from the DR site.
Assume both clusters have identical shares, exports, user authentication, and that the client
applications have been stopped and the DNS re-pointed. What is the easiest method to continue
operations on production?
A. Initiate Automated Failback of the SyncIQ Policy
B. Revert the SyncIQ Policy
C. Initiate Manual Failback of the SyncIQ Policy
D. No change to the SyncIQ Policy
Answer: A

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NO.9 While configuring Isilon SmartConnect, a customer has determined that their workload
primarily consists of short-lived connections, such as HTTP and/or FTP . Which load-balancing policy
will provide the most efficient client distribution?
A. CPU Utilization
B. Round Robin
C. Connection Count
D. Random Selection
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which protocols are supported by Isilon OneFS for file access?
A. NFS, HDFS, HTTP , SMB
B. SMB, HTTP , SMTP , HDFS
C. HDFS, NFS, iSCSI, SNMP
D. FTP , NFS, SMB, FC
Answer: A

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Dernières Avaya 132-S-708 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-708
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Voice Self-Service Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 .Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Interactive Response (IR) using Voice
over IP? (Choose two.)
A. NMS boards
B. Dialogic boards
C. SunSparc-based server
D. Communication Manager
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 .Your customer's company has extensive web services architecture. All communication with
customers has been through web chat and email. Customer demand has required the company to
setup a call center. They can only afford to staff a few agents, and firmly believe that a speech
application that accesses their existing web services would fulfill 70-80% of their incoming calls.
Which solution would meet their requirements?
A. Avaya Voice Portal and IVR Designer
B. Avaya Interactive Response and IVR Designer
C. Avaya Voice Portal and Avaya Dialog Designer
D. Avaya Interactive Response and Avaya Dialog Designer
Answer: C

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NO.3 .Which two represent native capabilities of Avaya Dialog Designer? (Choose two.)
A. Speaker Verification
B. Application Simulation
C. TAS Application Development
D. VoiceXML Application Development
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 .A healthcare company operates a mail order prescription business. Its contact center primarily
takes orders from existing and new customers. Upper management has decided not to implement
an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution, but use a competitor instead. The IT staff believes that once
they implement the new system, it will not operate as advertised. The IT staff asks you what they
can do to ensure that their application development time is not wasted in the event that they
ultimately decide to migrate to Avaya Voice Portal in the future. What is the most cost-effective
advice you can give the IT staff?
A. Advisethem to create their application using the competitor's proprietary tool set.
B. Advise them to create an application that exposes the weaknesses of the competitor platform.
C. Advisethem to escalate the decision about the platform since it will be very difficult to convert
later on.
D. Advise them to create their application inVoiceXML so that there will be portability to Avaya
Voice Portal.
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-708   132-S-708 examen

NO.5 .A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. This business has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution to
process routine orders to reduce the staffing costs. What are three benefits that this company can
expect to derive from implementing an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution? (Choose three.)
A. Agents can focus on complex customer issues.
B. Solution provides an effective 1-way voicemail solution.
C. Answers to common questions are available at any time.
D. Callers are connected directly to the agent of their choice.
E. Callers can be directed to routine information without agent assistance.
Answer: A,C,E

Avaya examen   132-S-708   132-S-708   132-S-708

NO.6 .Which two methods can be used to get and put data between Avaya Interactive Response (IR)
and Avaya Interaction Center (IC)? (Choose two.)
A. LAN Gateway
B. DLG Connector
C. VOX Connector provided with IC
D. IC Connector provided with Avaya Dialog Designer
Answer: C,D

certification Avaya   132-S-708 examen   132-S-708 examen   132-S-708

NO.7 .An Avaya Voice Self-Service customer has a limited service contract for IT and
telecommunications. They only have staff available from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.; otherwise they are
available using a pager. The contact center uses Avaya contact center and reporting solutions.
The contact center has staff onsite 24 hours a day. They actively monitor their agent pool and
have offered to monitor Voice Self-Service ports if they can have access to the data center to
monitor the system's health. There are significant security concerns with providing this type of
access to non-technical staff. Which alternative would allow the contact center personnel some
monitoring capabilities?
A. Place the self-service ports behind the Communication Manager; monitor the ports on the Call
Management System (CMS) using real-time reports.
B. Place the self-service ports in front of the Communication Manager; monitor the ports on the
Call Management System (CMS) using real-time reports.
C. Place the self-service ports behind the Communication Manager; turn on RedirectOn No-
Answer (RONA) to route calls to supervisory personnel when ports go out of service.
D. Place the self-service ports in front the Communication Manager; turn on Redirect On No-
Answer (RONA) to route calls to supervisory personnel when ports go out of service.
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-708 examen   certification 132-S-708

NO.8 .A customer wants to answer technical support questions 24x7 yet avoid paying for increased
staffing for night and weekends. Forty-five percent of agent calls are simple fixes that include
power-down and power-up support, explaining where to obtain the three-page troubleshooting
document, and the faxing of that document. Agents also sell post-warranty maintenance plans and
currently have only a 5% take rate due to high call volumes from new customers. One solution is
to off-load agent calls with an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution. Which two activities are
specifically targeted at reducing operational expenses and meeting business requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. Expensive customer service agents should not have to answer routine information requests.
B. Technical support calls should be delivered to customer service agents during the night and
weekend shifts.
C. Caller's intent should be effectively and consistently identified and then routed to a self-service
transaction or an agent.
D. Overflow calls should be routed to a voicemail system where they can describe their problem
and get a callback with the solution.
Answer: A,C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-708   132-S-708

NO.9 .Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Voice Portal using Voice over IP?
(Choose two.)
A. NMS boards
B. Dialogic boards
C. Intel/AMD server
D. Communication Manager
Answer: C,D

Avaya examen   132-S-708   132-S-708 examen   132-S-708 examen   132-S-708   132-S-708 examen

NO.10 .Which three elements are required to run an Avaya Voice Portal solution with a speech
application? (Choose three.)
A. Speech Server
B. Domain Controller
C. Media Processing Platform (MPP)
D. Voice Portal Management System (VPMS)
E. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Answer: A,C,D

certification Avaya   132-S-708   132-S-708   132-S-708   132-S-708

NO.11 .A company has decided to enter the ISV business and create custom Voice Self-Service
applications for Avaya platforms. They want to learn a single tool set and would like to be in this
business for the foreseeable future. Which skill set should they develop to be compatible with
current and future Voice Self-Service applications?
A. IVR Designer andVoiceXML
B. Dialog Designer andVoiceXML
C. Voice@Work and ScriptBuilder
D. IVR Designer and Transaction Assembly Script
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-708   132-S-708 examen   132-S-708 examen

NO.12 .A customer currently has one contact center in Denver using Avaya Interactive Response (IR).
They use TDM, Speech Recognition (ASR), and Text-to-Speech (TTS). In addition to these
features, their applications are all written in TAS. They are very satisfied with the state of their
current applications. They are opening a new facility in another location and want to have the
same Voice Self-Service applications in this new location. They need the new location operational
in four weeks. Cost is an issue. Since cost and expediency are primary concerns, what would you
suggest to add Voice SelfService capacity to the new location?
A. Add Avaya Voice Portal systems/ports in the new location.
B. Add Avaya Dialog Designer systems/ports in the new location.
C. Add Avaya Interactive Response systems/ports in the new location.
D. Add Avaya Interactive Response systems/ports to the primary location.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   132-S-708   132-S-708   132-S-708 examen

NO.13 .Which two application servers are supported by Avaya Dialog Designer? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft IIS
B. Apache Tomcat
C. IBMWebSphere
D. Oracle J2EE Web Server
Answer: B,C

Avaya   132-S-708   certification 132-S-708   132-S-708

NO.14 Which integration alternative provides optimal routing to an agent based on information gathered
at any given point within a Voice Self-Service application?
A. Avaya Interaction Center
B. Avaya Proactive Contact
C. Avaya Operational Analyst
D. Avaya Interactive Intelligence
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-708   certification 132-S-708   132-S-708   certification 132-S-708

NO.15 .A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. To process routine orders and reduce staffing costs, they have chosen to implement
an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution. They want a sophisticated seamless solution for routing
calls to agents. They want callers to be identified, serviced (provide routine information), and
routed to an agent with minimal input from the caller.
Which two speech elements would be required to implement this solution? (Choose two.)
A. Voice over IP (VoIP)
B. Text-to-Speech (TTS)
C. Speech Recognition (SR)
D. Speech Application Builder (SAB)
Answer: B,C

certification Avaya   132-S-708   132-S-708   certification 132-S-708   132-S-708 examen

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Code d'Examen: 6007.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Agile Communication Environment(TM) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

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NO.1 A technician is verifying an Avaya ACE Hot Desking deployment. Avaya ACE and the Application
Integration Engine (AIE) are installed, configured, and fully operational.
Ah Avaya ACE administrator previously configured a user ID and password for the Hotdesk Virtual
Secretary User ID in the Avaya ACE GUI. The Hot Desking application configuration has been
completed in the AIE GUI.
Which action should be taken to verify that the variable entered for the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID
in the AIE GUI is correct?
A. Using the Avaya ACE GUI, search for and list the user IDfor the Hotdesk virtual secretary.Ensurethe
AvayaACE user ID matches the variable entered fur the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID.
B. Using the AIEUser Synchronization tool, generate a report of valid user IDs. Ensure the variable
enteredtot the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID is listedin the synchronization report.
C. Using the Windows server console, retrieve the local users. Ensure the variable entered for
theHotdeskVirtualSecretaryuser ID displays inthelist of local Windows user.
D. Ensure the variable entered for theHotdeskVirtual Secretary User ID in the AIEGUIhasautomatically
populated duringthe AIE installation.
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6007.1 examen   6007.1 examen   6007.1   6007.1

NO.2 A technician has completed the installation and configuration of an Avaya ACE and IBM Lotus
Sametime for an integration solution. The solution includes telephony client presence.
Which action should be taken to ensure the deployment was successful?
A. Log into the Sametime server and ensure the telephony presence plug-in has been added to the
site.xml file.
B. Log into the Sametime Domino server and ensure the telephony presence plug-in has beenadded to
theTCSPIconfiguration file.
C. Log into theAvayaACE GUI and ensure contactinformation for the Sametime Connect client has been
automatically populated by Avaya ACE .
D. Log into the Sametime Connect client andensure that a telephony presence icon appearsfor
theSametimeConnect client users who are configured for telephony presenceinformation in AvayaACE .
Answer: D

Avaya examen   6007.1   certification 6007.1   6007.1

NO.3 An existing Avaya ACE customer wants a solution that will work with its existing customer resource
management (CRM) system to notify customers proactively about promotions or offers relevant to their
individual needs. The customer has an Avaya ACE on Windows core solution and does not want to
deploy additional hardware.
Which Avaya ACE solution matches the key capabilities that the customer requires?
A. Hot Desking
B. EventResponse Manager
C. Message Drop and Blast
D. WebBrowser and Office Add-ins.
Answer: D

Avaya   6007.1 examen   6007.1   6007.1

NO.4 A mid-size enterprise is deploying an Avaya ACE IBM Lotus Sametime Integration solution. The
customer network includes IBM Lotus Sametime, IBM Lotus Notes, and a communication Server 1000
system and end-user telephones and clients.
A technician has a work order to install the Avaya ACE Technology Conferencing Service Provider
Interface (TCSPI) on the Sametime server as part of the UC deployment.
Where can a copy of the latest version of the Avaya ACE TCSPI be obtained?
A. from the Avaya ACE GUIHelp menu
B. from the IBMLotus Sametime server
C. from the Domino server
D. from the IBM Lotus Notes catalog
Answer: C

certification Avaya   6007.1 examen   6007.1   6007.1   certification 6007.1

NO.5 A customer is deploying an Avaya ACE on Windows for a standalone configuration. They are also
deploying Corporate Portal and Message Drop and Blast services. The network includes a SIP-enabled
communication system and 500 end users.
How many Avaya ACE base software licenses are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 500
Answer: C

Avaya   6007.1   6007.1 examen   6007.1   6007.1

NO.6 A technician is deploying a Microsoft Desktop Enablement (Web Browser and Office Add-ins) solution
and has used the Avaya ACE Configuraor interface to build the add-in install packages for the end
users.
Which action should be taken to verify the Avaya ACE configuration is valid?
A. Using the Avaya ACE GUI, ensureOfficeAddinEnabled and BrowserAddingEnableduser
groupsarepresentin the list of Avaya ACE usergroups.
B. Using the WebSphere Administrative Console, ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabledandBrowserAddingEnabledservicesare Started.
C. Using theWindows serverconsole,run the Addin_service_control.bat file and ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabled and BrowserAddingEnabled services are Started.
D. Using the Application Integration Engine (AIE) GUI Status window, ensure theOffiecAddinEnabled and
BrowserAddingEnabled services are Started.
Answer: A

Avaya   6007.1 examen   6007.1

NO.7 A customer plans to deploy an Avaya ACETM Application Integration Engine (AIE) version 3.2. As part
of the definition of the project scope of work, the technician wants to ensure the appropriate operating
system is installed on the host server.
Which software operating systems (OS) is supported?
A. 32-bitor 04-bit Windows 2003 OS
B. 32-bit or 04-bit Windows 2008 OS
C. 32-bit Windows 2003 OS or64-bit Windows 2008 R2 OS
D. 64-bit Windows 2008 OS only
Answer: C

Avaya examen   6007.1 examen   6007.1   6007.1

NO.8 A customer has geographically diverse sites and plans to deploy an Avaya ACE Federation. Their
network includes a Communication Server 1000 (CS1000) system running a supported software release,
IBM Lotus Sametime, and the associated end-user telephones and clients.
When planning the Federation architecture, which is the platform consideration?
A. An Avaya ACE Federation requires an AvayaACE High Availability (HA) configuration.
B. An AvayaACE Federation requires an AvayaACE Linux-based hardware platform.
C. An Avaya ACE Federation requires a Microsoft Office Communications Server (OCS)
serviceprovider.
D. An Avaya ACE Federation requires an Application Integration Engine (AIE) server.
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6007.1 examen   6007.1   certification 6007.1   certification 6007.1

NO.9 A global bank has an Avaya High Availability (HA) ACE system Installed, and wants to deploy the Hot
Decking application. The customer wants to ensure high availability and reliability for application users.
Which additional hardware and operating system is required beyond the Avaya HA ACE base to
support the solution.?
A. One additional Linux server for the Avaya ACE base and two Linux or Windows servers to host the
Application IntegrationEngine(AIE) software.
B. Two additional Linux servers for the AvayaACE base and twoLinux or Windows servers to hostthe
AIE software.
C. TwoWindows servers to host the AIEsoftware.
D. No additional hardware, the AvayaACE and AIC software will co-reside on the same server.
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6007.1   certification 6007.1   6007.1 examen   6007.1   certification 6007.1

NO.10 A technician is installing the Application Integration Engine (AIE) software in active directory mode for a
standalone solution, the AIE software will be installed on a supported server with a supported Windows
2008 operating system.
Which statement describes an installation prerequisite?
A. An existing version ApacheTomcat is running.
B. An existing version of Java Runtime Environment (JRE)is running.
C. TheWindows serveris configured with the role of DHCP Server.
D. TheWindows server is configured with the role of Web Server.
Answer: D

Avaya   6007.1 examen   6007.1   6007.1 examen

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Code d'Examen: 6006.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

6006.1 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/6006.1.html

NO.1 Which two statements about the installing and cabling of the Media Gateway G650 are true?(Choose
two.)
A. Mount the A carrier at the bother of the rack
B. Mount the A carnet in the uppermost position in the rack
C. In a multiple Media Gateway GB50 configuration, the G650s an be allocated in different racks if long
TDMLAN cables are used to interconnect the 850s.
D. In a multiple Media Gateway G650 configuration put the G65s in the rack with no vertical pace between
them.
Answer: A,D

Avaya   6006.1   6006.1 examen   6006.1   6006.1

NO.2 A customer asks that the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya G450 Media Gateway
Primary Management interface (PM) be verified. Which two commands identity the information requested?
(Choose two.)
A. show ip-info
B. show running-config
C. show interface vlan (vlan #)
D. show configuration media-gateway
E. show system
Answer: B,C

Avaya   6006.1 examen   6006.1   6006.1 examen

NO.3 Which three settings need to be configured on a Layer 2 device? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. port speed
C. IP address
D. default gateway
F. routing interface
Answer: B,C ,D

Avaya examen   certification 6006.1   6006.1

NO.4 A technician is testing calls from IP phones at a remote location operating on a G450VLSP gateway to
main location served by S83XXG450 over the WLAN Busy tones are received when multiple calls
between the two locations are already active. Two network regions and G711 and G729 codec server has
been set up Which two steps must be taken to ensure the branch IP phones are using he minimum WAN
bandwidth when calling main location stations?
(Choose two.)
A. Assign branch IP Phones to the G450 LSP as its call server in ip-network-region 2 form.
B. Assign G.729 as primary codec in the Station Form for the branch IP phones.
C. Use the ip-network-map form to assign the branch IP phones to network region2.
D. Create a third Codec Set and assign to the G450 Gateway in ip-network-region 2 form.
E. Verify calls between NRI and NR2 use G.729 Codec in ip-network-region 1 form.
Answer: CE

certification Avaya   certification 6006.1   6006.1   6006.1   certification 6006.1   6006.1

NO.5 Before IPSI cards can become active on a new Communication Manager system, which screen must be
accessed to enable IPSI control of the Port Networks?
A. system-parameters ip-options
B. system-parameters ipsi-option
C. system-parameters port-networks
D. system-parameters ipserver-interface
Answer: D

Avaya examen   6006.1 examen   6006.1   6006.1

NO.6 A Customer has 1200 IP phones in their solution and they are looking for redundancy and load
balancing How many CLAN s are recommended for their IP phone registration and signaling?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

Avaya examen   6006.1   6006.1   certification 6006.1   6006.1 examen

NO.7 A customer users S8510 server with a Media Gateway he necessary components or adding additional
DCP phones to the system, including a new G650. Which three tasks need to be performed while
installing the additional requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cable the two G650 carriers with a TDMLAN Bus Extender cable
B. Se the proper carrier address ID for the second G650 carrier
C. Add additional 2GB of RAM to the SB5 10 server.
D. Remove the right ITMLAN bus terminator from the bottom GB50 carrier and install the bus terminator
at the left end of the TDWLAN bus on the G650 carrier directly above.
E. The new digital line card must be installed in slot 2 of the new G650.
Answer: A,B,D

certification Avaya   certification 6006.1   6006.1 examen   6006.1

NO.8 The Avaya G450 Media Gateway can be configured to function as a DHCP (Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol) client DHCP client enable the G450 to receive an IP address from a DHCP server,
according to the DHCP client-server protocol. As an option, the G-450 DHCP client can also request to
receive which three types of IP-related information? (Choose three.)
A. a list all H 248 Media Gateways in the system
B. a Domain Name
C. a list of default routers
D. a list of all registered IP Phones
E. a list of available DNS servers
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   certification 6006.1   6006.1 examen   certification 6006.1

NO.9 What are two ways of obtaining the RFA Module ID (MID) and System ID (SID)? (Choose two.)
A. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command statuslicense-V .
B. From the CM SAT issue the command list configuration software-versions .
C. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command systat .
D. From the CM SAT issue the command display system-parameters customer-options .
Answer: A,D

Avaya examen   6006.1   6006.1   6006.1

NO.10 At a new deployment the customer has a total of 2,000 subscribers at their main location. They do not
need redundancy in their solution Which Media ServerMedia Gateway combination should be used for
this deployment.?
A. S8800 Simplex with G450
B. S8800D with G450
C. S8300D with G430
D. S8800 Duplex with G650
Answer: A

certification Avaya   6006.1   6006.1 examen   6006.1 examen

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6102.1 dernières questions d'examen certification Avaya et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 6102.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 67 Q&As

6102.1 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/6102.1.html

NO.1 Which command can be used to determine the management IPv6 address on the Virtual Services
Platform (VSP) O000?
A. Show interfaces mgmtEthernet 1/1
B. Show ip interface vrf mgmtRouter
C. Show ipv6 interface vrf mgmtRouter
D. Show ipv6 address interface
Answer: D

Avaya   6102.1   6102.1 examen   6102.1 examen

NO.2 Which two management ports are available on the CP module? (Choose two.)
A. Serial interface
B. USB (host) interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. Modem interface
Answer: A,D

certification Avaya   6102.1 examen   6102.1   6102.1

NO.3 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to ensure that all of
the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

Avaya   6102.1   6102.1

NO.4 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

Avaya   6102.1 examen   6102.1

NO.5 Which types of packets will port mirroring not capture.?
A. Packets that are dropped on the ingress MAC
B. Packets that are destined for the standby CP
C. Packets that are properly forwarded through the VSP
D. Packets that have a destination address of 255.255.255.255
Answer: A

certification Avaya   6102.1   6102.1 examen   6102.1   6102.1 examen   6102.1

NO.6 Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used by the IP Multicast router, to learn about the
existence of host group members on their directly attached subnets.
Which statement about IGMP is true?
A. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for IP hosts broadcasting IGMP queries and
reporting their host group memberships.
B. The IP Multicast routers get this information by broadcasting IGMP queries and listening for IP hosts
reporting their host group memberships.
C. The IP Multicast routers get this information by recognizing the modified MAC address of a Multicast
packet and adding that MAC address to the Multicast tree.
D. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for Multicast Servers broadcasting IGMP
queries and listening for IP hosts reporting their host group memberships.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6102.1 examen   6102.1   certification 6102.1

NO.7 Given the following ACL applied to an interface:
filter acl ace 1 5 name "xxxx" filter acl ace action 1 5 deny
filter acl ace ip 1 5 ip-protocol-type eq tcp
filter acl ace protocol 1 5 dst-port eq 23
filter acl ace 1 5 enable
What is the result of this filter?
A. permit telnet traffic
B. deny ftp traffic
C. permit only tcp traffic
D. deny telnet traffic
E. deny only tcp traffic
Answer: D

Avaya   6102.1 examen   6102.1 examen   6102.1   6102.1   certification 6102.1

NO.8 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the existing
Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the VSP 9000.
Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP address.
Answer: D

Avaya   6102.1   6102.1 examen   6102.1   6102.1

NO.9 A Split Multi Link Trunking (SMIT) for switch clustering is being configured.
Which statement is a configuration requirement for the SMIT?
A. The CP-Limit is configured on edge switch stacks.
B. VLANs that are defined on the SMLT are also defined on the tote IST.
C. Neighboring edge switch stacks should be connected to each other via the DMLT connection to add
resilient paths in the event of an SMLT failure.
D. Alternate the primary path of the SMLT connection Lo load balance the switch core.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6102.1   6102.1

NO.10 Avaya recommends that the Switch Fabric (SF) modules be installed in both Slot SF1 and Slot SF4.
What is the reason behind this recommendation?
A. It provides optimal load balancing between the SF modules.
B. It provides redundancy tor the bandwidth management.
C. It takes full advantage of the orthogonal midplane architecture.
D. It provides redundancy in case of a power supply failure.
E. It provides lossless SF failover.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6102.1   6102.1   certification 6102.1   6102.1

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Code d'Examen: 3203
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Messaging Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Where do you define topology properties for an Avaya Aura Messaging system?
A. on the storage server, which then applies them to the associated Application servers
B. on the Application server, which then applies them to the associated Storage server
C. on both the Application server and the associated Storage server
D. on each Application Server of a cluster and on the associated Storage server
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 3203   certification 3203

NO.2 An end user has a completely functional mailbox but complains that when using Notify Me to phone is
configured with a long distance number, calls are not received. The user is one of the groups of users with
this problem. Other users can use long distance numbers for their Notify Me to Phone number
successfully. Your testing reveals that the problem is exactly as described using the same long distance
number; one user successfully uses Notify Me to Phone and a non working user cannot.
What is causing the problem?
A. The non working users class of service does not allow long distance dialing from the system.
B. The non working users mailbox configuration is set to disallow long distance dialing from system.
C. Dialing rules have been configured incorrectly for the system.
D. The non working users do not have extensions that are configured in the switch.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   3203   3203

NO.3 A manager claims that mailbox 5608 is dormant and has not being used for more than 30 days. Where
would you verify this information?
A. the application server
B. the Users and Uninitialized Mailboxes reports
C. the Uninitialized Mailboxes report
D. the User Activity log
Answer: D

Avaya   3203   3203   3203

NO.4 What is Avaya's recommended order when upgrading servers in a multi-server deployment?
A. Always upgrade the Storage server first and then the application servers.
B. Always upgrade the application servers in the deployment first and then the other
C. Servers can be upgraded in any sequence.
D. All servers can be upgraded simultaneously.
Answer: A

Avaya   3203   3203 examen   3203

NO.5 The WebLM server controls the use and access of Avaya Aura Messaging features through licenses
which must be purchased including the number of Avaya Aura Messaging enabled mailboxes the
customer wants to us.
Which two statements are accurate regarding licensing the Avaya Aura Messaging system? (Choose
two.)
A. A license can be created by Avaya Backbone support; in the event that the permanent license has not
yet been issued; this temporary license will expire in 30 days.
B. The license is created based on the Host ID of the Storage Server.
C. Avaya technicians and Business Partners connect to the Avaya support site and Product Licensing and
Delivery System (PLDS) to order and retrieve the license file dining installation of theserver.
D. An enterprise license allows the same license to be shared with multiple Messaging systems within an
organization.
E. User mailbox count can only be changed through PLDS either by purchasing additional seats or
moving seats between licenses.
Answer: B,D

certification Avaya   3203   3203 examen

NO.6 A user has a completely functional Avaya Aura Messaging mailbox arid the Message Waiting Indicator
(MWI) light is working. The user informs you that text notifications are not being received on the cell
phone. You log on to the system and see that text notification has been set up correctly on I user
preferences page.
What can you do to test the connectivity to the user's cell phone service provider?
A. Use the SMS Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
B. Use the SMTP Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
C. Use the POP3 Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
D. Use the Mail Delivery diagnostic from Messaging SMI.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   3203 examen   3203   3203   3203 examen

NO.7 On which two virtual servers do we install the WebLM license file received from the Avaya licensing and
Delivery System (PLDS)? (Choose two.)
A. on the Console Domain Network Configuration (cdom) of the Storage Server
B. on the System Domain (Domain 0) on all of the application only servers
C. on cdom of the Single Server
D. on the System Domain (Domain-0) on any one of the application servers
E. on Avaya Aura Messaging on the first application server in the Domain
Answer: A,C

Avaya   3203   3203   certification 3203

NO.8 A user was unable to login yesterday but can login today. The user does not remember the exact details
but may have received a timeout or an invalid password.
If the user is unable to login again, which two actions should you perform to troubleshoot this situation?
(Choose two.)
A. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Messaging Administration > Messaging
System (Storage) > User Management and review the User properties.
B. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Messaging Administration > Messaging
System (Storage) > User Activity Log Configuration and ensure that Activity Log Enabled is set to yes.
C. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Diagnostics > Diagnostics (Application) and
make a test call to that specific User.
D. On the Administration menu, click Messaging > Logs > User Activity, and review the Subscriber Activity
log for a specified timeframe.
Answer: B,D

Avaya examen   3203 examen   3203   3203 examen   3203

NO.9 An end user has a completely functional mailbox but complains that when using Notify Me to Phone is
configured with a long distance number, calls are not received. The user is one of a group of users will this
problem. Other users can use long distance numbers for their Notify Me to Phone numbers successfully.
Your testing reveals that the problem is exactly as described using the same long distant number; one
user successfully uses Notify Me to Phone and a non working user cannot.
What is causing the problem?
A. The non working users class of service does not allow long distance dialing from the system.
B. The non working users mailbox configuration is set to disallow long distance dialing from the system.
C. Dialing rules have been configured incorrectly for the system.
D. The non working users do not have extensions that are configured in the switch.
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 3203   3203 examen   3203

NO.10 Which type of data do you need to enter in the Connection field of the SIP specific configuration.?
A. Thefully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of the far end switch.
B. The hostname followed by the port of the far-end switch.
C. theIP address and port of the far end switch.
D. theFQDN and port of far end switch.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   3203 examen   3203 examen   3203

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Code d'Examen: 3301
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Centre Maintenance & Troubleshooting Exam )
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

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NO.1 In the Avaya Aura Contract Center (AACC) SIP environment, when a call is presented to an agent ¯ s
telephone, the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop (AAAD) also alerts the agent to the incoming call. The call may
be answered either via the telephone or AAAD.
If the agent uses the AAAD to answer the call, which protocol is used between AACC and the switch to
signal off-hook?
A. CCT
B. SIP RTP
C. TAPI
D. TR87
Answer: A

Avaya   3301   3301 examen   3301 examen

NO.2 An agent is configured to handle e-mail multimedia contacts. The agent is able to receive, read, and
reply to e-mails using the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop (AAAD). However, the agent cannot open
attachments in inbound e-mails.
What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The agent ¯ s w eb b r o w se r i s no t se t f o r t he co rr ec t cha r ac t e r encod i ng .
B. .NET 3.5 Service Pack 1 is not installed on the agent ¯ s co m pu t e r.
C. Internet Explorer is not set as the default browser on the agent ¯ s co m pu t e r.
D. The agent has not been granted ° open -mail Attachments ± ri gh t s i n C on tr ac t C en t e r m u lti m ed i a
(CCMM).
Answer: A

Avaya   3301   3301 examen

NO.3 In Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC), how do you create auto responses that address the most
commonly received e-mail queries?
A. Run ,1 "Contacts is Closed by Auto Suggestion, top 5" historical report from the "Multimedia" folder in
Historical Reporting on the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) server, and auto suggestion
keywords and responses from the report to create new e-mail auto-respect.
B. Enable "Keyword Reporting" for e-mail contactsinthe "E mail" tool in Contact Center Multimedia
(CCMM) Administration, then use the "Keyword Frequency" tool to determine which keywords would be
used to trigger new auto-responses.
C. Run a "Contact Summary" report in Historical Reporting on the CCMA server and create
auto-responses based on the most frequently-occurring e-mail contact topics in the report.
D. Use the "Auto-Suggest Promotion" tool in CCMM Administration to promote auto-suggestions
auto-responses based on the percentage of contacts for which each auto-suggestion was selected.
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3301 examen   3301 examen

NO.4 At an elevated level, engineers have designed the architecture ol SH' around ttv<> varlel les of
component s.
Which SIP component is comprised of two subcomponents, where one component initiates SIP the other
component responds to requests?
A. User Agent
B. SIP Gateway Manager
C. Back to-Back User Ag
D. SIP Server
E. SIP Gateway
Answer: B

Avaya   3301   certification 3301   3301

NO.5 Your department has installed a backup utility client application on your co-resident Contact Center
Manager Server (CCMS) server. This utility uses port 10000 for network communications. After installing
the utility and rebooting the server, you begin to have issued with the Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC)
system.
What are the symptoms of this problem that you experience?
A. The TFE service fails to start and calls are not processed.
B. The Toolkit Name service fails to start and agents appear as "UNKNOWN" in real-time displays.
C. The NCCT service fails to start and agents are unable to log in via the Avaya Aura Agent Desktop)
(AAAD).
D. SymposiumWC.exe fails to start and supervisors are unable to log in to Contact Center Manager
Administrator (CCMA).
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 3301   3301 examen   3301 examen

NO.6 The C:\WINDOWS\system32\drivers\etc\hosts file on the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
contains multiple entries for each host. You have removed the duplicate entries by manually editing the
file.
What should you do next to completely resolve the issue?
A. Run the Server Configuration utility, save and apply all changes, then reboot the CCMS server.
B. Reboot the CCMS server.
C. Use the windows services utility to restart the MAS Configuration manager services.
D. Run the CCMS network Configuration utility, save and apply all changes, then reboot the CCMS
server.
Answer: B

Avaya   3301 examen   certification 3301   certification 3301   certification 3301

NO.7 Avaya Aura Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) is host to the Contact Center Security framework
certificate Store. In the procedures to Create a Certificate Store, once the store is created is also created.
A characteristic of this certificate is that it contains__________.
A. a private key that is used in private - public key encryption
B. a public key that is used in public - public key encryption
C. a private key that is used in private - private key encryption
D. a public key that is used in private - private key encryption
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 3301   certification 3301

NO.8 While Investigating an Issue with an Avaya Aura Contact Center (AACC) Contact Center Manager
(CCMS), you discover that the Task Flow Executor (TFE) frequently restarts. In an effort to discover the
cause of the restarts, you decide to review the TFE log file.
Which file contains the most recent TFE logs.?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\TFE 1.log
B. D:\Avaya\l_ogs\CCMS_TFF 1.log
C. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS_TFE_5.log
D. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\CCMS_TFE_1.log
Answer: C

certification Avaya   3301   3301   certification 3301

NO.9 Where are current SIP messages logged by Contact Center Manager Server?
A. C:\Avaya\logs\CCMS\SipMessages0
B. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\SGM\SipMessages0
C. D:\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\CCMS_SGM_SipMessages0
D. F:\Traces\Avaya\Logs\CCMS\SGM\SipMessagesO
Answer: D

Avaya   3301   3301 examen   3301 examen

NO.10 Which SIP component supports both H.323 and SIP protocol architecture, and which common media
streaming protocol is supported?
A. SIP Gateway Manager with transport Layer Security (TLS)
B. Network Routing Service with TCP and UDP
C. Back to Back User Agent (B2BUA) with TLS
D. SIP Gateway with Real-Time Protocol (RTP)
E. SIP Redirect Server with RTP
Answer: C

Avaya   3301   certification 3301

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