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Code d'Examen: 000-318
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5 Core Administration)
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is accurate regarding business-level applications?
A. A business-level application contains application binary files.
B. Only WebSphere artifacts are contained in a business-level application.
C. The business-level application function introduces new application programming interfaces
(APIs).
D. Make a Java EE application a business-level application and add it to another business-level
application.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A system administrator needs to deploy an enterprise application to a WebSphere
Application
Server environment. Before starting the deployment process, the administrator uses the IBM
Assembly and Deploy Tool (IADT) to inspect the EAR and notices that it is enhanced. Since
enhanced EARs are not allowed in their runtime environment, the system administrator needs to
unenhance the EAR. How can the system administrator successfully remove the enhancements?
A. Use WebSphere Customization Toolbox (WCT) to unenhance the EAR.
B. Disable the application scoped resources in the application deployment descriptor.
C. Remove the META-INF/ibmconfig folder from the project before exporting the EAR.
D. Make sure that Process embedded configurations is not selected when exporting the EAR.
Answer: C

IBM   000-318 examen   000-318 examen   000-318   000-318

NO.3 An application development team has developed a new version of an application that needs to
be
rolled out to a selected group of users for testing while the other users can continue to access the
old version of the application. What configuration should the system administrator do in order to
achieve this?
A. Perform a rollout on an application edition.
B. Perform a rollout on an application edition and establish routing policies.
C. Install an application edition and establish routing policies.
D. Activate concurrent application editions and establish routing policies.
Answer: D

IBM   000-318   000-318

NO.4 A system administrator needs to control which staff members have access to manage certain
application servers. They choose to use fine grained control and map the staff members to only
those specific application servers to which they need access. What does the system administrator
need to do to accomplish this?
A. Add custom properties to each of the application servers with role mappings for each staff
member
B. Use an Administrative Authorization Group to map the staff members and roles to the
application servers.
C. Create a security domain and add the application servers with the staff members in the role
definitions.
D. Create a custom user registry which prevents authorization requests to the application servers
not in the desired list.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A system administrator is monitoring a web application and needs to find the slowest JSP page
when a typical client load is run against the server. How can the system administrator find it?
A. Analyze the thread dump.
B. Use the HPEL Log Viewer to view traces.
C. Use the Log Analyzer to view the SystemOut logs
D. Use the Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) and view the Servlet Summary reports.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-318   000-318   certification 000-318   000-318

NO.6 In a test environment, a system administrator has configured an external HTTP in the DMZ that
is
routing to a cluster of application servers. The administrator wants to achieve high results and
performance when routing and prioritizing incoming requests to the back-end cluster. How can the
system administrator achieve this task?
A. Configure a cluster of external HTTP servers.
B. Enable the prefer local option on the cluster members.
C. Setup a Caching Proxy server between the external web server and the application server.
D. Place an On Demand Router (ODR) between the external web servers and the application
servers.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A system administrator manages a WebSphere Application Server environment which uses a
Federated Repository consisting of multiple LDAP servers. The first LDAP server is the corporate,
highly-available LDAP server and contains most of the users. The second LDAP server contains
only the administrative users and is run on a local system which is restarted regularly. To
maximize the availability of the Federated Repository, what should the system administrator do?
A. Set the second LDAP server as a backup server.
B. Add both LDAP servers to the High Availability Manager's core group.
C. Use a TAI (Trust Association Interceptor) to aggregate the LDAP servers.
D. Enable Allow operations if some of the repositories are down.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-318   certification 000-318   000-318

NO.8 A system administrator has added a server cluster as a member of a service integration bus.
The
system administrator needs to configure one messaging engine for each server in this cluster and
to have a failover location for each messaging engine. Which messaging engine policy should the
system administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Scalability
B. High availability
C. Scalability with high availability
D. Custom policy using the Quorum attribute
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-318   000-318

NO.9 A system administrator needs to install IBM Installation Manager on a remote host using
Flexible
management. To do so, on which host machine should the system administrator download the
Installation Manager "kits"? (choose 2)
A. Job Manager
B. Remote host
C. On Demand Router
D. Administrative Agent
E. Deployment Manager
Answer: A,E

IBM examen   000-318 examen   000-318

NO.10 A system administrator has just built a WebSphere Application Server node to replace a node
lost
to disk failure. The system administrator wishes to reincorporate this node into the existing
WebSphere Application Server cell and use the prior configuration information. Unfortunately, the
backup of the cell is extremely out of date. What should the system administrator use to
accomplish this task?
A. wsadmin
B. addNode
C. wsimport
D. manageprofiles
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 00M-617
Nom d'Examen: IBM (TSM Butterfly Migration Engine Sales Mastery V1)
Questions et réponses: 74 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about a Phase Period?
A. It is 3 months.
B. It is defined by TB.
C. It is a custom defined period of months.
D. It is an automatically determined migration period.
Answer: D

IBM examen   00M-617   00M-617

NO.2 What is the duration for the import stage of a customer's collection?
A. It will take no more than 5 minutes per site.
B. It will depend on the customer's environment.
C. It will take no more than 5 minutes per server.
D. It will take no more than 5 minutes per customer.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How many TSM Butterfly Migration Engines are required?
A. at least one
B. one at most
C. one per data type
D. one per data center
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a Node Group?
A. a set of library media
B. a set of backup policies
C. a collection of backup clients
D. a collection of backup servers
Answer: D

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Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/au/downloads/Storage/Session_5_Migrating_to_TS
M.pdf(Slide 41)
7. Which statement is true about how the target solution should be designed?
A. using the Migration Engine
B. exactly as defined in the AER (Analysis Engine Report)
C. within legacy system standards
D. consider contemporary principles
Answer: B

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8. Which statement is true about a proof of concept?
A. It is not available locally.
B. It must use only one Phase.
C. It will only migrate TSM5 data.
D. It follows the same methodology of a full migration.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What key security issue is addressed using the Mediator / Migrator approach?
A. It ensures no customer data leaves the data center.
B. It ensures no customer data is left on the source platform.
C. It ensures all components can be provided as Software as a Service.
D. It ensures all customer data is encrypted during export from the data center.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 00M-617   00M-617   00M-617 examen

NO.6 What must a Migrator be able to do?
A. access the Source server only
B. access the Source and Target servers
C. access the Source, Target, and Migration Engine
D. access the Migration Engine as the Migrator can access the Source and Target Servers
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: A2070-443
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM DB2 Content Manager V8.3)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 Which THREE of the following files contain System Administration Client error logging
information?
A.dklog.log
B.cmadmin.log
C.cmbadmerr.log
D.IDMSysAdmin.log
E.IDMcmberror.log
F.cmbadminerr.log
Correct:A B C

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NO.2 A new user has just been added to the Content Manager system. The administrator
wants to
assign this userid a privilege set in an already existing access control list. The userid is not
shown in the access control list modification panel. Which of the following is the most likely
reason for this?
A.The access control list is already in use and cannot be modified anymore.
B.The userid has an assigned privilege set which includes the ItemSuperAccess privilege.
C.The password for the new userid is expired immediately, and therefore, this userid cannot
be accessed.
D.The Content Manager System Administration client needs to be restarted after a userid is
created to
refresh the cache.
Correct:B

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NO.3 The DB2 Content Manager connector API query language is similar to which of the
following?
A.SQL
B.XPath
C.XQuery
D.Regular expressions
Correct:B

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NO.4 During installation, which of the following options must be configured to connect to an
LDAP
server and retrieve user names and groups into Content Manager?
A.Base DN and group names
B.Server name and Base DN
C.Server name and group attributes
D.Base DN and minimum number of records to retrieve
Correct:B

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NO.5 The migrator process has been set to check for data to migrate at intervals of 15
minutes
between 8:30 PM and 4:30 AM. Sometimes the migration process takes about 20 minutes to
complete. What happens when the last migration process commences?
A.The migrator will start logging errors as soon as it hits 4:30 AM.
B.The migrator will stop if it runs past 4:30 AM and resume at 8:30 PM from where it stopped.
C.The migrator will complete the last migration process and will stop until the next cycle
begins.
D.The migrator will stop at 4:30 AM and an optional flag can be set to email an administrator
of a stalled
migration.
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which of the following options allows one to quickly develop an MS .NET application
which
accesses data stored in a DB2 Content Manager Server?
A.Portlet
B.Web services
C.User exit on the Client for Windows
D.XML Services provided by the C++ API
Correct:B

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NO.7 A developer needs to prototype the integration of DB2 Content Manager with an
existing
application built on the Microsoft .NET framework. Which of the following related to the
integration options is accurate?
A.The developer will need to rewrite the .NET application in Java.
B.The developer must recompile the .NET application as a Visual C++ 6.0 application.
C.The developer will be able to connect directly to Content Manager from the .NET
application.
D.The developer will be able to connect to Content Manager but only through a Java proxy
class.
Correct:C

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NO.8 Additional privileges were added to a privilege set associated with a user group, which
has been
assigned to an ACL. However, a user in this user group does not see these privileges. Which
of
the following is a possible reason for this outcome?
A.The user belongs to a subdomain.
B.The privilege was added to a different privilege set.
C.The user is not a Content Manager system administrator.
D.An ACL cannot grant more access than a user has in the privilege set associated with their
user ID.
Correct:D

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NO.9 When a connection to a pre-existing Content Manager database server is being
defined during
an installation of a new administrative client, what will happen if the schema name is omitted
or
typed incorrectly?
A.The administrative client will fail to start.
B.The installation process will create a default schema.
C.The System Administration client list of servers will appear empty.
D.During startup the administrative client will ask the user to define a schema since it was
missing during
installation.
Correct:C

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NO.10 What is the default duration of a security token generated to access a resource
manager object?
A.1 day
B.2 days
C.2 hours
D.30 minutes
Correct:B

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NO.11 Which item type classification does NOT allow text searching on the content of a text
document?
A.Item
B.Document
C.Resource
D.Document Part
Correct:A

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NO.12 A collection point provides which of the following functions?
A.Defines the data storage volumes for document routing folders and folder items.
B.Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work
node after
administrator approval.
C.Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. The types of documents collected are
specifically
determined by the business task. The collected documents are automatically sent to the next
defined
work node.
D.Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work
node after a
folder has collected the required number of documents or sets a notification flag if the time
allotted to wait
for the required documents has expired.
Correct:D

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NO.13 A Content Manager administrator has found that after importing users defined in LDAP
into
Content Manager, the imported users are unable to log in to Content Manager. From the
Tools>Logging menu in the System Administration client, where would one change the
tracing
level to help diagnose this problem?
A.General
B.System Administration
C.Library Server
D.Resource Manager
Correct:B

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NO.14 An Item Type must contain which of the following?
A.A root component
B.A resource component
C.At least one child component
D.An item constructor component
Correct:A

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NO.15 A solutions integrator has been asked to extract administrative metadata in XML format
from
DB2 Content Manager in a custom application. Which of the following approaches is the
simplest
solution to accomplish this task?
A.Use the DKXMLSysAdminService service class in the XML Java API.
B.Use the XML Schema Mapping tool to export the XML data to a file.
C.Use the DKAdminData class to extract the data inside a C++ program.
D.Write a custom administrative user exit to export the XML data to a file.
Correct:A

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NO.16 A developer needs to integrate enterprise content with two line-of-business
applications. The
first application contains DB2 relational data and the second one is an archive of images
residing
on a Domino.DOC system. Which of the following approaches will work best if the goal is to
minimize both the development time and the amount of code written and maintained by the
client?
A.Develop Java applications using the base libraries of DB2 and Domino.DOC.
B.Develop the application using the native API's available with DB2 and Domino.DOC.
C.Develop the application using the Federated connector within the WebSphere Information
Integrator for
Content Edition.
D.Develop the application using the Relational data connector and the Domino.doc enabler
connector
within the WebSphere Information Integrator for Content Edition.
Correct:C

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NO.17 Which TWO of the following are valid delete rules that may be applied to a child
component
definition?
A.Cascade
B.Restrict
C.SetToNull
D.No Action
E.SetDefault
Correct:A B

certification IBM   A2070-443   certification A2070-443   certification A2070-443

NO.18 In a system with administrative domains enabled, which of the following objects can
exist in
more then one domain?
A.User IDs
B.Collections
C.Resource Managers
D.Access Control Lists
Correct:D

certification IBM   A2070-443   certification A2070-443   certification A2070-443

NO.19 In a system that uses DB2 Information Integrator for Content and Workflow, how can
a user be
deleted from Workflow that has already been deleted in DB2 Information Integrator for
Content?
A.Run the EIPUser2WF.bat to delete the users from Workflow.
B.Run the fmcibie utility to delete users and user groups from Workflow.
C.Add the deleted persons to the DeletePersons.fdl file and restart the Workflow service.
D.These users are always synchronized and therefore will never have to delete users directly
from
Workflow.
Correct:B

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NO.20 An administrator wants to configure a federated search including a DB2 Content
Manager
server on an iSeries platform. Which of the following files will need to be updated?
A.frnolint.tbl
B.cmbicmenv.ini
C.cmbicmsrvs.ini
D.cmbcmenv.properties
Correct:A

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Code d'Examen: A2090-735
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: DB2 9.5 SQL Procedure Developer)
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement can be used to define an array of 30 names that have a maximum
size of 25
characters each?
A. CREATE TYPE names AS VARCHAR(25) ARRAY[30];
B. CREATE ARRAY names[30] VARCHAR(25);
C. CREATE TYPE names[30] VARCHAR(25);
D. CREATE ARRAY names AS VARCHAR(25);
Answer: A

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NO.2 hich steps must be followed to return a result set from an SQL procedure?
A. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Close the cursor.
5.Return to the application.
B. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the WITH RETURN clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
C. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
D. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4. Close the cursor.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the statement shown below:SELECT ROW CHANGE TOKEN FOR dept,
RID_BIT (dept) FROM
dept WHERE deptno = 'A00' WITH URWhich two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The statement is selecting two columns from DEPT table.
B. The statement will allow the latest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
C. The statement will allow the earliest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
D. The statement will return a TIMESTAMP value.
E. The statement uses optimistic locking.
Answer: BE

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NO.4 Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing
a DECLARE
GLOBALTEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two valid DECLARE statements in an SQL procedure? (Choose two.)
A. DECLARE var1 INTEGER;
B. DECLARE var1 DECIMAL [9];
C. DECLARE var1 XML;
D. DECLARE var1 CURRENT DATE;
E. DECLARE var1[10] INTEGER;
Answer: AC

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NO.6 hich statement can be used to declare a variable inside an SQL procedure that can be
used to
represent a monetary value?
A. DECLARE v_money MONEY;
B. DECLARE v_money DOUBLE;
C. DECLARE v_money DECIMAL(9,2);
D. DECLARE v_money CURRENCY;
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the SQL statement shown below:DECLARE test CURSOR FOR SELECT
hiredate FROM
employee FOR UPDATE; Which statement correctly describes the cursor that is created?
A. The cursor will be considered a read-only cursor.
B. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned updates.
C. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned deletes.
D. The cursor can be used to perform positioned updates and deletes.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the statements shown below: DECLARE c_dept CURSOR WITH HOLD FOR
SELECT * FROM
dept; OPEN c_dept;Which two conditions are true? (Choose two.)
A. C_DEPT will remain open after a ROLLBACK.
B. C_DEPT will remain open after a COMMIT.
C. C_DEPT will be returned to the caller of the routine.
D. C_DEPT will be positioned before the next logical row.
E. All locks held by C_DEPT will be released after a COMMIT.
Answer: BD

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NO.9 What will be the initial value of V_MAX in the declaration statement shown
below?DECLARE v_max
DECIMAL(9,2);
A. 0.0
B. 2
C. 9
D. NULL
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement should be used to declare an array with at most 10 elements of type
INTEGER?
A. DECLARE sub_total INTEGER[10];
B. DECLARE sub_total[10] INTEGER;
C. CREATE TYPE sub_total AS INTEGER[10];
D. CREATE TYPE sub_total[10] AS INTEGER;
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2140-134
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Business Developer v7.1)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 One of several programs in an EGL project requires a different build descriptor option
from the other
programs in the same project. What is the BEST way to specify the different build descriptor
option?
A. generate the program using Generate With Wizard and override the build descriptor option
in the
wizard
B. use a master build descriptor plugin.xml file to control which build descriptor part is used
for each
program
C. move the program to a different project so that all programs in each project use the same
default build
descriptor part
D. create a build descriptor part for the program and specify it in the EGL Default Build
Descriptors for the
program
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which EGL statement demonstrates the correct way to initialize a dynamic array of
integers so that the
first element has the value 3?
A. myArray INT =3;
B. myArray INT[] =3;
C. myArray INT[3];
D. myArray INT[3] =3;
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which EGL statement is used to send a text form to a user, receive input from the user,
and always
return to the same program?
A. show statement
B. converse statement
C. forward statement
D. display statement
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which primitive type provides the best performance for a counter used to control a loop
with maximum
iterations of 1000?
A. DECIMAL
B. INT
C. NUM
D. SMALLINT
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which choice is a valid stereotype for a record?
A. Array
B. CSV
C. ExternalType
D. Form
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2180-377
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Administration)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application
within a flexible
management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using
wsadmin scripts by
connecting to which of the following components?
A.Node agent
B.Job manager
C.Work manager
D.Administrative agent
E.Deployment manager
ANSWER: BE

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NO.2 An administrator has created a deployment manager profile. However, the
administrator chose not to
create the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository and populate it with the
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 product files.
If, in the future, the administrator wants to use the Centralized Installation Manager to install
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote host, which of the following tasks
will be
necessary?
A.Create the CIM repository using the Installation Factory.
B.Create a new deployment manager profile including the CIM repository.
C.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation target.
D.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation package.
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 How is the response file specified in a silent installation scenario?
A.Specified in the installation.properties file
B.Specified as a parameter in the launchpad user interface
C.Included as a command-line option on the install command
D.Included as a command-line option on the launchpad application
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 Applications that need to create additional persistent bindings of objects associated
with a specific
node can bind those objects under which of the following types of namespace partition?
A.Server roots
B.Cell persistent
C.Node persistent
D.System namespace
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a
flexible
management topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment
manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.6 Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation
of WebSphere
Application Server?
A.The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B.The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated
in the future.
C.The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include
administrative
security.
D.The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments
to be done
over several installation attempts.
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A.Generic servers
B.Application servers
C.Managed HTTP servers
D.Unmanaged HTTP servers
ANSWER: D

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NO.8 What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a
request from a
Web browser to a servlet?
A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a
farm of Web servers?
A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
ANSWER: D

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NO.10 A system administrator has successfully installed WebSphere Application Server V7.0
and has run
the Installation Verification Tool (IVT) with a success message. Which additional step can be
taken to
further verify the installation?
A.Check to see if the InstallShield application will run again.
B Check to see if the installation directory specified exists in the file system.
CUse a browser to access the launch page of the IBM HTTP Server.
D.Use a browser to access the administrative console and log in successfully.
ANSWER: D

IBM   C2180-377   C2180-377

NO.11 Which one of the following profile related tasks can only be performed using the
manageprofiles
command-line facility?
A.Delete a profile
B.Secure a profile
C.Federate a profile
D.Update profile templates
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management
environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.13 Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other
facilities does
WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A.wsadmin
B.The administrative agent
C.The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D.Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
ANSWER: C

IBM   C2180-377   C2180-377 examen

NO.14 What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A.Client mode
B.Server mode
C.Not shared
D.Push only
E.Both push and pull
F.Broadcast mode
ANSWER: CDE

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NO.15 An administrator would like to use the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) to install
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote Solaris host. The Solaris host has
been
updated with all the required operating system patches.
What is the next step the administrator must perform?
A.Configure an installation target for the Solaris host.
B.Download Solaris interim fixes to the CIM repository.
C.Use the Job manager to create a remote installation job.
D.Copy WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 software to the Solaris
host.
ANSWER: A

IBM   C2180-377   C2180-377

NO.16 What is the most common role that naming plays in WebSphere Application Server?
A.Allows applications to obtain references to objects such as EJB homes.
B.Allows Java programs (clients and Java EE applications) to create, send, receive, and read
asynchronous requests, as messages.
C.Provides a runtime environment for enterprise beans within the application server.
D.Provides a secure facility to support customer's basic organizational entity management
needs.
ANSWER: A

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NO.17 When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings,
which of the
following commands would be relevant?
A.backupConfig -location location
B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
ANSWER: C

IBM   C2180-377   C2180-377 examen

NO.18 A system administrator is installing WebSphere Application Server for the first time
and was surprised
that the Profile Management Tool (PMT) did not have the expected profile type options, as
stated in the
Information Center.
What is the best conclusion for this finding?
A.The Java runtime being used by the installation program is not at the required version.
B.The system administrator is installing a variant of WebSphere Application Server that is not
Network
Deployment.
C.The target operating system the system administrator is installing on is not compatible with
WebSphere
Application Server.
D.A previous step in the installation has failed. The system administrator should cancel and
check the
logs before starting over again.
ANSWER: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs
automatically after
installation?
A.Start the server.
B.Execute wsadmin.
C.Configure resources.
D.Run the Snoop servlet.
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node
groups to implement
a distributed environment? To:
A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration
purposes.
D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for
workload
management.
ANSWER: C

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NO.21 What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the
following.
A.Node agents
B.Web servers
C.Caching Proxy
D.Dynamic cache replication
E.HTTP session persistence and failover
F.Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
ANSWER: DEF

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NO.22 When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight
transactions from the
transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files
ANSWER: D

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NO.23 A WebSphere Application Server installation finishes and the primary installation log
indicates an exit
code of INSTCONFSUCCESS. What is the best conclusion that can be resolved from this
result?
A.The Web server installed successfully.
B.The WebSphere Application Server installed successfully.
C.The InstallShield Wizard executed successfully to launch WebSphere Application Server
installation.
D.The target operating system determined that it is compatible with WebSphere Application
Server and
had configured environment variables for it.
ANSWER: B

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NO.24 Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated
repository. The
administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating
system registry
and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating
system
user ID App1Admin.
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure
Application1?
A.The administrator can access Application1.
B.The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C.App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D.App1Admin can access the administrative console.
ANSWER: B

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NO.25 Which of the following options is NOT a valid method of running the Profile
Management Tool?
A.Run the command directly from a system console.
B.Select Profile Management Tool from the First Steps application.
C.Select System Administration -> Run Profile Management Tool in the administrative
console.
D.Check the Create a new WebSphere Application Server profile using the Profile
Management Tool
option at the end of the installation process.
ANSWER: C

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NO.26 What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP
Session
persistence?
A.Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B.Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C.Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D.Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
ANSWER: C

IBM   C2180-377   certification C2180-377

NO.27 How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on
different hosts in a
network?
By using:
A.a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative
agents.
B.a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their
node agents.
C.a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through
their
administrative agents.
D.an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their
administrative service.
ANSWER: A

IBM   C2180-377   C2180-377

NO.28 What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them
together in a
topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A.Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B.Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C.Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D.Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
ANSWER: C

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NO.29 Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for
establishing and
maintaining resource connections?
A.a data source
B.connection factories
C.connection pool settings
D.a JMS activation specification
ANSWER: B

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NO.30 A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web
application running
in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web
application?
A.Configure dynamic caching
B.Enable memory-to-memory replication
C.Configure session replication to use a database.
D.Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
ANSWER: A

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Code d'Examen: C2140-046
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DOORS V9)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two module attributes can be used to generate a report about changes to the
module? (Choose
two.)
A. Created By
B. Created On
C. Last Modified By
D. Last Modified On
Answer: CD

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NO.2 According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor
requirements
gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about Private, Public, and Custom views?
A. All users have modify access to a Public view.
B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which type of DOORS user can create projects?
A. Edit DXL
B. Standard
C. Project Manager
D. Database Manager
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements
Management
tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

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Dernières IBM C2040-956 de la pratique de l'examen questions et réponses téléchargement gratuit

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Code d'Examen: C2040-956
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Domino 8.5 includes both Domino server roaming and file server roaming as an option
in this release
for end users. You wish to upgrade one group of users to Domino roaming and another group
to file server
roaming.How would you do this?
A.Domino server roaming and file server roaming can only be performed from a policy and
not from the
Admin client.
B.Domino server roaming and file server roaming can only be performed from the Admin
client, and not a
policy.
C.Domino server roaming is performed from the Admin client, and file server roaming is
performed from a
policy.
D.Domino server roaming is performed from a policy, and file server roaming is performed
from the Admin
client.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your Domino server has been configured for DAOS, and all mailfiles have also been
enabled
successfully.In which of the following times will consolidation occur when a user saves an
attachment that
meets the defined DAOS size settings?
A.Immediately
B.The next time the DAOS service runs
C.After the user closes the current Notes session
D.By the schedule defined in the server configuration document
Answer: A

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NO.3 You want to enable early authentication for all new users after Lotus Notes 8.5
Standard has been
installed.What steps are needed to achieve this:
A.It is enabled by default.
B.Set the parameter EARLY_AUTHENTICATION_ENABLED=1 in the users' notes.ini.
C.Set the option in the security settings document in a policy that will be applied to the end
user.
D.Change the target in the Lotus Notes shortcut on the users' desktops to point to
nlnotes.exe instead of
notes.exe.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which version of Domino is the earliest version of Domino that DCT (Domino
Configuration Tuner) can
be run on to evaluate settings?
A.Domino 7.0.0
B.Domino 8.0.0
C.Domino 8.5.0
D.Domino 6.5.0
Answer: A

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NO.5 Domino Attachment and Object Service is supported on each of the following,
EXCEPT?
A.Mail.box databases
B.DB2 enabled databases
C.Non-mail file databases
D.Domino servers hosted on an operating system in a virtual environment
Answer: B

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NO.6 James is the administrator of ABC company and wants to deploy ID vault.In which
order should he
perform the steps i.use policies to assign user IDs to the vault ii.create the vault database on
a server,
iii.specify which user organizations trust the vault and assign password reset authority,
iv.create the vault
ID file and specify at least one vault administrator,
A.ii, iv, iii, i
B.iii, ii, iv, i
C.ii, iii, iv, i
D.Steps not complete
Answer: A

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NO.7 Users are able to change settings for their own devices in Lotus Traveler; however,
the synchronization
default settings for all users comes from which of the following files?
A.NTSConfig.xml
B.iltraveler.config
C.travsyncconfig.xml
D.traveler.properties
Answer: A

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NO.8 While creating the ID vault, you must configure the organizations that trust the vault for
ID
storage.Which of the following does this create?
A.An AdminP request is created
B.ID vault administrator accounts
C.Vault trust certificates in the Domino Directory
D.Certifier ID files of the organizations or organizational units with vault trust certificates
Answer: C

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NO.9 Terry is working on a document in a database on a server that is DAOS-
enabled.While in the document,
Terry replaces the attachment with a new version.Which of the following occurs to the
attachment in the
DAOS store?
A.The server adjusts references to the attachment in DAOS
B.The server removes the reference from all mail files that pointed to that original file
reference
C.The server removes the previous attachment entirely from DAOS and inserts the link to the
new
attachment
D.The server uploads the full previous attachment to all user mail files that pointed to that
original file
reference
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following notes.ini variables must be in place to enable the Domino
Attachment and Object
Service on your Domino server?
A.ServerTasks=DAOS
B.AttachmentService=2
C.Create_R85_Databases=1
D.DAOS_Enabled_On_Server=1
Answer: C

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NO.11 In databases that use DAOS, Domino performs which of the following with every
document with an
attachment?
A.Domino saves a separate and complete copy
B.Domino saves a reference to each attached file
C.Domino creates a field in the document called $DAOSnopurge
D.Domino copies the attachment to a central repository and leaves a copy attached to the
document
E.Domino splits the attachment into smaller sections and compresses each section and file
reference
Answer: B

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NO.12 Creating an ID vault on your Domino server requires: Administrator access to the
server on which you
create it Editor access to the Domino Directory and which of the following?
A.Create databases and templates access
B.Membership in the ID Vault Admins group
C.The ID Vault Admin role in the Domino Directory
D.Specifying multiple Domino servers to host the ID Vault database
Answer: A

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NO.13 Each of the following is true about the ID vault EXCEPT;
A.Smartcard-enabled IDs cannot be stored in a vault.
B.You can not use the CA process when registering users into the vault.
C.Performing certificate authority key rollover on certifier IDs is not supported.
D.You cannot use the CA process when creating cross-certificates that are needed to
establish vault trust
and password reset
Answer: B

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NO.14 After enabling DAOS for a mail database on your server, which of the following
compact tasks must be
run on the database to complete the initialization for DAOS on that database?
A.In-place
B.Copy-style
C.Revert database
D.Discard view indexes
Answer: B

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NO.15 Your development team has modified the client download site for Lotus Traveler.All of
the changes,
though, are not being seen as the server is still pointing to the old directory and files.You
have
successfully modified the Home URL in the Internet Site Document.Which of the following
must also be
modified?
A.The servlet utilized by the Domino Web server
B.The NTS_WEBSITE_HOME parameter in the notes.ini file
C.Disable Internet Site documents in the Domino server
D.Make TCP port 8642 available to all users to see the new site documents
Answer: B

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IBM meilleur examen A2090-541, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A2090-541
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: DB2 9.7 DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button
Given the INSERT statements shown below:
INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (1 ,'M' 54); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (2, 'F', 38); INSERT INTO
applicant VALUES (3, 'M', 21); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (4, 'F', 91); INSERT INTO applicant
VALUES (5, 'C', 50); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (6, 'C', 70); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (7, 'C',
95);
How many rows will be successfully inserted?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which command will reorg all indexes for a table named TABA?
A. REORG TABLEtaba INDEXES INPLACE
B. REORG TABLEtaba AND INDEXES ALL
C. REORG INDEXES FORtaba
D. REORG INDEXES ALL FOR TABLEtaba
Answer: D

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NO.3 Given the DDL shown below:
CREATE TABLE tab1 (coll SMALLINT );
CREATE VIEW v1 AS SELECT coll FROMtabl WHERE coll > 25 ;
CREATE VIEW V2 AS SELECT COI1 FROM v1 WITH CASCADED CHECK
OPTION
CREATE VIEW v3 AS SELECT coll FROM v2 WHERE coll < 100 ;
Which statement will fail?
A. INSERT INTO v2 VALUES (35)
B. INSERT INTO v1 VALUES (5)
C. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (25)
D. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (200)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is correct about informational constraints?
A. An informational constraint can be used by the SQL compiler to improve the access to data and
query performance.
B. The database manager uses an informational constraint to enforce the uniqueness of the key
during changes to the columns of the unique constraint.
C. An informational constraint is a column or combination of columns that has the same properties
as a unique constraint.
D. An informational constraint specifies that every row that is inserted or updated in the table must
conform to the definition of the table.
Answer: A

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5. Click the Exhibit button.
IBM 000-541: Practice Exam
In the exhibit, where would the authentication of the supplied userid and password from a remote
client take place?
A. AIX operating system
B. LDAP Server
C. Kerberos Server
D. "MyPlugin.so" GSS-API plug-in
Answer: B

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6. Which two plug-in types does the DB2 database system provide? (Choose two.)
A. Group retrieval
B. Kerberos authentication
C. Server authentication
D. Encryption authentication
Answer: A,C

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7. What are three authorization categories in DB2? (Choose three.)
A. System-level
B. Database-level
C. Network-level
D. Object-level
E. Instance-level
Answer: A,B,D

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8. What are three system and database level authorizations available with DB2? (Choose three.)
A. SYSMON
B. SYSMNT
C. DBCTRL
D. SYS ADM
E. DBADM
Answer: A,D,E

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9. A DBA wants to use Label Based Access Control (LBAC) to protect Individual rows in a table.
Which data type must be used to create a column to hold the necessary LBAC security data?
A. SYSPR0C.DB2LBACU\BEL
B. SYSPR0C.DB2SECURITYU\BEL
C. SYSIBM.DB2LBACLABEL
D. SYSIBM.DB2SECURITYLABEL
Answer: D

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10. Which administrative authority is needed to run the audit stored procedures and table
functions such as the AUDIT_DELIM_EXTRACT stored procedure?
A. DBADM
B. SECADM
C. SQLADM
D. SYS ADM
Answer: B

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