2013年9月29日星期日

L'avènement de la certification Symantec pratique d'examen ST0-052 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ST0-052
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option
(CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC

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NO.2 What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 What are three advantages of using the working set backup method? (Select three.)
A. requires fewer media to restore
B. requires less time to perform than a full backup
C. includes data that have been accessed in a specific number of days
D. provides a current backup of the entire system in one backup set
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 What are two characteristics of the default media set named <span style="font-style: italic;">"Keep
Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers
(RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D

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NO.8 If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays
the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC

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NO.10 Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are three consequences of doing only full backups? (Select three.)
A. only allows full restores
B. redundant backups
C. takes more time
D. requires more media
Answer: BCD

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NO.12 Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an
existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC

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NO.13 Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD

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NO.14 How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE

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NO.16 Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B

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NO.17 You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A

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NO.18 With which two backup methods can the option "use the Microsoft Change Journal if available" be
used? (Select two.)
A. archive
B. incremental
C. differential
D. working set
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows
2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory
Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE

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NO.21 What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A

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NO.22 What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select
three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD

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NO.23 If the overwrite protection period is current, when can media be overwritten? (Select three.)
A. when the overwrite protection level is set to None
B. when the media is erased, formatted, or labeled
C. when the media is associated with the Scratch media set
D. when the append period is expired
Answer: ABC

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NO.24 When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which database component is installed with Symantec Backup Exec 12?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 7
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 (SP-3a)
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which two periods must be defined when creating a Symantec Backup Exec 12 media set?
A. append and overwrite protection periods
B. system and overwrite protection periods
C. retention and overwrite protection periods
D. append and retention periods
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.28 Where can you find a list of all the media that is required for a restore job?
A. All Media node
B. media set
C. Reports tab
D. media vault
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which two backup methods can reset the archive bit on files? (Select two.)
A. working set
B. differential
C. full
D. incremental
Answer: CD

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NO.30 Which type of backup is used for an online database?
A. snapshot
B. flat
C. active
D. cold
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-057
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas NBU PureDisk 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 Which application is newly supported in version 6.5 of PureDisk?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
B. Microsoft Exchange 2007
C. Oracle 11i DBMS
D. Microsoft Message Queue
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which component must be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. workflow controller
B. CIFS interface
C. NetBackup export engine
D. content router
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is an optional component that can be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. NetBackup export engine
D. controller
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which data has the default size of 128 KB?
A. data object
B. fingerprint
C. segment
D. workflow object
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is created in PureDisk by using an MD5 algorithm?
A. fingerprint
B. data object
C. workflow object
D. segment
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which version of Veritas Volume Manager is included with a PureDisk 6.5 installation?
A. 4.0
B. 4.1
C. 5.0
D. 5.1
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which service can be added to an existing storage pool to increase the amount of data stored in the
environment?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. metabase server
D. repository manager
E. workflow controller
Answer: B

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NO.8 Multiple nodes have been configured with the Topology Wizard.
Which script will push out the software to these nodes?
A. install_newStoragePool.sh
B. enc_topology.sh
C. update_topology.sh
D. add_onNode.sh
Answer: A

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NO.9 How many terabytes of data in PureDisk 6.5 can be stored per content router in the storage pool?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.10 On which three operating systems does NetBackup support running the PureDisk 6.5 deduplication
option? (Select three.)
A. Windows Server 2000
B. Solaris 9
C. Linux
D. HP/UX
E. IBM AIX
Answer: ABC

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NO.11 Which feature does PureDisk enable by using a CIFS interface?
A. direct access to backup data
B. NetBackup integration
C. data security and encryption
D. central management
Answer: A

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NO.12 On which component in the PureDisk architecture does grouping clients with similar data improve
deduplication?
A. storage pool authority
B. metabase server
C. content router
D. repository manager
Answer: A

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NO.13 When backing up a new file, which information is sent that describes that file's attributes?
A. metadata
B. path object
C. data object
D. segment data
Answer: A

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NO.14 By default, where does PureDisk provide for data security by encrypting the data?
A. content router
B. storage pool authority
C. client
D. metabase engine
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two components can be added to increase the size of the PureDisk storage pool? (Select two.)
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. client agents
D. NetBackup export engine
E. storage pool authority
Answer: AB

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NO.16 When installing a PureDisk agent, unless you specify a location or department, where does PureDisk
place the client agent?
A. Central SPA location and department
B. Default Agents
C. Unknown location and Unknown department
D. Unknown Agents
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which key feature of PureDisk 6.5 depends on the client communicating with the storage pool to
determine whether data is already stored?
A. data security and encryption
B. global deduplication
C. fast access to backup data
D. central management
Answer: B

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NO.18 At which component level does PureDisk provide for bandwidth efficiency by deduplicating data?
A. client
B. storage pool authority
C. content router
D. metabase engine
Answer: A

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NO.19 From which two optional locations can PureDisk retrieve user information? (Select two.)
A. Internal LDAP
B. Active Directory
C. System Password File
D. PureDisk Authority Directory
Answer: AB

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NO.20 By default, a storage pool with a single metabase engine is limited to how many clients?
A. 256
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2048
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-067
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (STS))
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NO.1 Which two are modules of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select two.)
A. Standards
B. bv-Control
C. ESM
D. Internet Security
E. Entitlements
Answer: AE

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NO.2 Which three are components of the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. web portal
B. Evidence database
C. ESM database
D. Cognos
E. application server
Answer: ABE

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NO.3 Which four bv-Control platforms are supported in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Standards?
(Select four.)
A. Oracle
B. Windows
C. UNIX
D. Exchange
E. SQL
F. NetWare
Answer: ABCE

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NO.4 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for routing data collection,
evaluation, and reporting jobs?
A. application server
B. collector
C. load balancer
D. Management Service
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the minimum number of computers required to configure each Data Processing Service role?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two benefits does the Policy Module provide? (Select two.)
A. determines coverage gaps for multiple, overlapped regulatory, industry-specific, or best practices
frameworks
B. lowers the cost of policy creation and maintenance and measures policy knowledge and retention
C. defines, reviews, and disseminates written policies to end users as mapped to specific measurable
controls
D. integrates the policy compliance process with existing asset management systems
E. identifies problems within policies or internal controls and prevents policy compliance failure or data
breach
Answer: AC

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NO.7 What needs to be configured in order to collect common fields during a asset import using the default
data collector?
A. ESM data collector
B. CSV data collector
C. Automatic Entitlements Import job
D. a policy with associated assets
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three database maintenance tasks must be performed outside of Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. purge evidence
B. back up the databases
C. purge stale data
D. shrink the databases
E. defragment the databases
Answer: BDE

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NO.9 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for most inter-component
transactions?
A. Directory Support Service
B. Data Processing Service
C. Information Server Service
D. Application Server Service
Answer: D

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NO.10 A user-defined report template is created from a predefined report template.
When a user-defined report template is deleted, what happens to the predefined report template?
A. The predefined template is also deleted.
B. The predefined template is automatically updated with the latest changes.
C. The predefined template is unaffected.
D. The predefined template reverts to the original template.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Data can be collected using which two data collectors in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0?
(Select two.)
A. ESM
B. XML
C. ODBC
D. CSV
E. AS400
Answer: AD

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NO.12 In Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0, if an administrator wants to evaluate assets compared to a
referenced asset, what is used?
A. reference evaluation
B. baseline standard
C. gold standard
D. policy mapping
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which three functions are provided by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. provides the ability to attest to procedural controls
B. uses automated agentless or agent-based capabilities to audit and scan technical controls
C. verifies and confirms risk and posture compliance assessment
D. produces evidence of due care in an IT audit process
E. integrates the remediation process
Answer: ABD

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NO.14 When does the RMS Console Configuration Wizard appear? (Select two.)
A. every time a new license has been added
B. the first time that a user opens the console after the installation or the upgrade
C. after a new Credential database has been applied to the user
D. after a bv-Control snap-in installation on the console computer
E. after the user has changed their default information server
Answer: BD

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NO.15 Communications between Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (CCS 9.0) components rely on a
signed digital certificate.
What is the root certificate authority in the CCS 9.0 environment?
A. Microsoft Certificate Authority Server
B. Certificate Management Console Server
C. CCS Management Service
D. Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which term refers to organizational rules or requirements that provide guidance to employees?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which databases are created by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Reporting and Analytics
during installation?
A. Production, Reporting, Evidence
B. bv, Compliance Manager, Policy Manager
C. Dashboard, Reporting, SMC
D. Evidence, Standards, Policies
Answer: A

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NO.18 In the context of IT compliance, what are standards?
A. a set of generally accepted best practices
B. a protector against a specific risk or threat
C. statements of goals and objectives
D. a collection of methods to evaluate compliance efforts
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which information is displayed in the Monitor View?
A. jobs and reports
B. jobs and evaluation results
C. tasks and reports
D. data collections and evaluation results
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which term refers to rules created by a government in response to legislation?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: E

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.policy creation
B.detection of incidents
C.inspection of network communication
D.identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which file on the endpoint machine stores messages that are temporarily cached when using two-tier
policies such as IDM or EDM?
A.is.ead
B.ttds.ead
C.ks.ead
D.cg.ead
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A.date fields
B.numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C.column names in the first row
D.country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select two.)
A.DLP is best implemented as a departmental initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by the network team.
C.An incident response team is rarely required.
D.Employee education is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
Answer: DE

Symantec   250-510   250-510   250-510

NO.5 What must be running on a Linux Enforce server to enable the Symantec Data Loss Prevention user
interface?
A.selinux
B.iptables
C.xwindows
D.ssh
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)
A.Endpoint Discover
B.Endpoint Prevent
C.Network Monitor
D.Enforce
E.Network Prevent
Answer: DE

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NO.8 Which detection server setting enables detecting text within markup language tags?
A.ContentExtraction.MarkupAsText
B.ContentExtraction.EnableMetaData
C.Detection.EncodingGuessingEnabled
D.Lexer.Validate
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which plug-in can connect to Microsoft Active Directory (AD)?
A.CSV Lookup
B.Live LDAP Lookup
C.Active Directory Integration Lookup
D.Directory Server Lookup
Answer: B

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NO.10 How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident
response team?
A.Match count thresholds are set.
B.More than one policy is enabled.
C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.
D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select
two.)
A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images
B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system
C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously
D.configure, test, and tune filters
E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed
Answer: AD

Symantec   250-510 examen   250-510

NO.12 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-510   250-510

NO.13 What are two benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide? (Select two.)
A.provides accurate measurement of encrypted outgoing email
B.gives insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identifies who has access to sensitive data
D.indicates where sensitive data is being sent
E.measures encryption strength for sensitive data
Answer: CD

Symantec   certification 250-510   250-510 examen

NO.14 What are two valid reasons for adding notes to incidents? (Select two.)
A.to provide incident detail to policy violators
B.to allow the next responder to more quickly prioritize incidents for review
C.to allow the next responder to more quickly understand the incident history
D.to provide detail when closing an incident
E.to provide incident detail for report filtering
Answer: CD

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NO.15 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Incident Dashboard
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

Symantec   250-510   250-510 examen

NO.16 What are two examples of confidential data? (Select two.)
A.manufacturing plant locations
B.published press releases
C.stock performance history
D.CAD drawings
E.employee health information
Answer: DE

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NO.17 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
Answer: AE

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NO.18 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A.Network Discover
B.Network Protect
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A.manually quarantine files
B.automatically quarantine files on file shares
C.modify a response within a policy
D.automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E.apply digital rights to content
Answer: AE

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NO.20 Which response rule action will be ignored when using an Exact Data Matching (EDM) policy?
A.Endpoint: Notify
B.Network: Block HTTP/HTTPS
C.Protect: Quarantine File
D.Network: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-093
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 The user interface (UI) will be used to upgrade to Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5. A Data Loss
Prevention administrator will be logging in to the Enforce Server from a desktop to perform the upgrade.
The Vontu\Protect\config\Manager.properties file is set to default settings. Which port must be open to
connect to the upgrader application?
A. 8080
B. 8090
C. 8100
D. 8300
Answer: D

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NO.2 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.3 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A. manually quarantine files
B. automatically quarantine files on file shares
C. modify a response within a policy
D. automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E. apply digital rights to content
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 What should be used to exclude email going to any email address in the partner.com domain?
A. IP filter
B. L7 filter
C. Content filter
D. Sender/User Matches pattern
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which feature is a key benefit of on-screen notification?
A. uses on-screen notification in different languages
B. educates the user about the violation that has occurred
C. stops the movement of data that violates policies
D. notifies the user that the Endpoint Agent is active
Answer: D

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NO.6 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A. Incident Dashboard
B. Incident Snapshot
C. Incident List
D. Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-093   ST0-093 examen   ST0-093

NO.7 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A. policy creation
B. detection of incidents
C. inspection of network communication
D. identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which detection server can block file transfer protocol (FTP) requests?
A. Network Monitor Server
B. FTP Prevent Server
C. Web Prevent Server
D. Endpoint Prevent Server
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which server encrypts the message when using a Modify SMTP Message response rule?
A. Encryption Gateway
B. SMTP Prevent Server
C. MTA Server
D. Enforce Server
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which products run on the same detection server?
A. Network Protect and Network Discover
B. Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C. Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D. Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are two available options when accessing the Configure Server page to configure protocol filters?
(Select two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. ICMP
E. UDP
Answer: B,C

Symantec examen   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.12 What is the sequence of message processing for Network Monitor?
A. Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection -> Incident Writer
B. Monitor Controller -> Detection -> File Reader -> Incident Writer
C. File Reader -> IncidentPersister -> Manager -> Notifier
D. Request Processor -> Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection
Answer: A

Symantec examen   certification ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.13 What must a Data Loss Prevention administrator recycle for Network Monitor filter configuration
changes to take effect?
A. VontuMonitorController
B. PacketCapture
C. FileReader
D. Network Monitor
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A. Network Protect
B. Endpoint Discover
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.15 To which file system folder does PacketCapture write reconstructed SMTP messages?
A. drop
B. drop_pcap
C. drop_discover
D. drop_smtp
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two protocols are available by default and recognized by Network Monitor by their individual
signatures? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. IM: AIM
D. SNMP
E. TFTP
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-093   certification ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.17 What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port?
A. string matching
B. port range
C. either UDP or TCP
D. protocol signature
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which component has an obfuscated (hidden) log?
A. Endpoint Agent
B. Enforce Server
C. Network Monitor
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the primary function of Endpoint Prevent?
A. encrypts confidential data being sent over the network or copied to removable media
B. finds confidential data and quarantines the data to a central repository
C. disables end-user devices that are unauthorized by a company's data security policies
D. stops confidential data from being sent over the network or copied to removable media
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A. date fields
B. numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C. column names in the first row
D. country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-100
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Domino Technical)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 After running the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration Wizard, which of these services are running
when viewed from the Vault Administration Console? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Indexing Service
B. Enterprise Vault Administration Service
C. Enterprise Vault Directory Service
D. Enterprise Vault Domino Archiving Service
E. Enterprise Vault Task Controller Service
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which two SQL databases are directly associated with storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.3 Did you participate in formal Symantec training for this exam? If so, please select the type of training
that you completed. (Select all that apply.)
A. Instructor-led classroom
B. Virtual instructor-led classroom
C. eLearning / web-based training
D. Symantec-hosted webcast
E. Distributor or reseller-hosted webcast
F. Field / Real-world experience
G. Other
Answer: A,B

Symantec examen   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.4 What are two reasons for adopting Symantec Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content?
(Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 A user is unable to log in to search the archived mail. Which step can be taken to correct the problem?
A. re-enable the mailbox
B. refresh the design
C. reset the Internet password
D. reset the Domino password
Answer: C

Symantec examen   certification ST0-100   certification ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.6 Which two of the following are created by the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration wizard? (Select
two.)
A. Index locations
B. Vault Directory database
C. Services on the Enterprise Vault server
D. Domino archives
E. Vault store databases
Answer: B,C

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.7 A company will have five Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) sites and three EV Directories. How many
Monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ST0-100   ST0-100   certification ST0-100   ST0-100 examen

NO.8 Which two Symantec Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company
to maintain information? (Select two.)
A. data compression
B. collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. storage on WORM devices
E. item conversion to HTML
Answer: A,C

Symantec examen   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.9 Which two additions are made to the notes.ini of the Symantec Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway
(EVDG) server after installing Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. ServerTasks=EVDominoHousekeeping
B. ServerTasks=EVDominoEM
C. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoEM.dll
D. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping.dll
E. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100 examen   certification ST0-100

NO.10 Implementation of Symantec Enterprise Vault follows a specific sequential process after prerequisites
are met. The first three steps in this process include: run the Deployment Scanner, run the Software Install,
and run the Configuration Wizard. What is the fourth step in the process?
A. run the Domino Configuration Wizard
B. run the Getting Started Wizard
C. run the Archiving Configuration Wizard
D. run the Provisioning Wizard
E. run the Storage Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which action is necessary to run DTrace from within the Vault Administration Console?
A. enable Traces from the Site Properties
B. enable debug from the Site Properties
C. install DTrace.exe on the Symantec Enterprise Vault server
D. enable Advanced Features
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a benefit of archiving Domino user mail files?
A. makes email highly available
B. provides a compliance copy of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100 examen

NO.13 Which process requires that the Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway (EVDG) be installed in the
environment?
A. Mailfile archiving
B. Lotus Notes access to archived items
C. Enterprise Vault Administrator access to Domino configuration
D. Journal archiving
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.14 What are two primary physical data-storage components of Domino Mailbox Archiving in
Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. IIS configuration data
E. Shopping Basket
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which connection type is used to archive messages from mail files?
A. IMAP
B. NRPC
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
Answer: B

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NO.16 Symantec Enterprise Vault sites are grouped under which Symantec Enterprise Vault container?
A. Directory
B. Targets
C. Archives
D. Domains
Answer: C

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NO.17 When the Deployment Scanner is used for troubleshooting a Symantec Enterprise Vault
environment, which two of these tests are performed? (Select two.)
A. mail file permissions
B. Domino server permissions
C. registry settings
D. Domino server versions
E. Domino template versions
Answer: C,D

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.18 What tool can be installed to check that all pre-requisites have been correctly configured?
A. Enterprise Vault Compatibility Checker
B. Enterprise Vault Deployment Scanner
C. SystemCheck.exe
D. Microsoft System Information tool
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-100   ST0-100   certification ST0-100

NO.19 Which two are prerequisites for installing Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) Reporting? (Select two.)
A. grant dbreader rights in Microsoft SQL server to the default EV Domino Admin role
B. install Microsoft Active Server Pages .NET 3.0 SP3 on the EV server
C. install Microsoft SQL Reporting Services on the SQL Reporting server
D. give the Vault Service Account the Content Manager role on the Microsoft SQL Reporting server
E. add the Vault Service Account to the Local Administrators group on the SQL Reporting server
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 What should be done before running the Enterprise Vault Reports Configuration tool?
A. create the Enterprise Vault Reporting SQL database
B. stop IIS
C. add the Vault Service Account to the DomainAdmins group
D. create an ordinary Active Directory user account to be used by Enterprise Vault Reporting
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC High Availablity Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two should be captured in the Symantec Design Report Questionnaire for a VCS or SF/HA
Implementation Service? (Select two.)
A.Prerequisites for implementing VCS
B.Details of the physical environment, including details of the servers, O/S networks and storage that will
be deployed in the solution
C.List of VCS agents that will be deployed in the solution, including requirements for custom agents
where applicable
D.List of the service groups, resources and dependencies that are to be configured in the solution
E.Details of the applications to be clustered, including service level objectives
Answer: Pending

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NO.2 Which of the following tools should you primarily use to perform pre-installation checks for implementing
VCS or SF/HA 5.1?
A. Common Product Installer (CPI)
B. SORT Installation and Upgrade Assessment
C. VRTS Explorer
D. VCS Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has a large high-availability environment comprising of 90 Veritas Cluster Server (VCS)
clusters across 3 sites. Thier business continuity group requires a monthly set of reports showing the
availability and downtime for each service that is clustered. What solution should you recommend?
A. Storage Foundation Manager
B. Veritas Operations Manager
C. Global Cluster Manager
D. VCS webGUI
Answer: B

Symantec   ASC-012   ASC-012

NO.4 In a 2-node 5.1 Replicated Data Cluster using VVR, which option should be discussed with the
customer?
A. setting the AutoFailover service group attribute to 2
B. using SystemZones for the service groups
C. setting the ClusterFailOverPolicy service group attribute to Manual
D. using Hybrid service groups for the replication service group
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the recommended project phases for VCS or SF/HA Implementation Services, in the right
order?
A. Assess, Design, Transform, Operate (ADTO)
B. Design, Installation, Configuration, Testing, Project Close
C. Planning and Design, Installation and Configuration, Testing, Project handover and close
D. Project Initiation and Planning, Design, Implementation and Testing, Operations Handover, Project
Close
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-134
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec EndPoint Protection 12.1 Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to
bypass traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technology blocks such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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NO.2 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from
connecting to the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be
prevented from working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the
performance of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason
for this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms
like W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-134   ST0-134
13.Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most
granular level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: CD

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NO.10 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

Symantec   certification ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.11 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

Symantec   certification ST0-134   certification ST0-134

NO.12 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection
layers against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-134   ST0-134   certification ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.14 According to Symantec, what is a botnet?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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NO.15 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint
Protection 12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and
Intrusion Prevention technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all
communications from an attacking host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

Symantec examen   ST0-134   ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.16 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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NO.19 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

Symantec examen   certification ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.20 An administrator creates a new domain in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console. How
can the administrator copy policies from the old domain to the new domain?
A. Export the policy from the old domain and import it into the new domain.
B. Copy the policy in the old domain and paste the policy into the new domain.
C. Copy the old domain's policy XML file into the folder for the new domain.
D. Back up the old domain's database and restore it into the new domain.
Answer: A

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