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Code d'Examen: 000-604

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM System z Technical V5 )

Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-G01

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM EMEA Maintenance and Technical Support Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-603

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM System z Solution Sales V6)

Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-581

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM FileNet Content Manager V5.1)

Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

000-581 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-581.html

NO.1 When using Workplace XT and a user is out of the office (e.g., vacation), where can they specify an
alternate person to receive their Process Engine work items.?
A. Site Preferences.
B. Process Configuration Console.
C. Task Settings under User Preferences.
D. General Settings under User Preferences.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a High Availability environment for Content Engine, how should IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager be
connected to the Content Engine server?
A. Using Enterprise JavaBeans (EJB) protocol for a specific node.
B. Using WSI protocol for multiple nodes (e.g. load-balancer URL).
C. Using Web Service Interoperability (WSI) protocol for a specific node.
D. Using EJB protocol for multiple nodes (e.g. corbaloc URL for WebSphere).
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.)
A. Content Engine is performing slow.
B. If search templates are not working.
C. After restoring a storage area from backup media.
D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity.
E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage area,
even when they have view-content permissions on the document.
Answer: C,E

IBM   000-581   000-581   000-581   000-581 examen

NO.4 The Process Engine service user (pe_service_user) is used by the Process Engine to connect to the
Content Engine. What type of account should you create for the pe_service_user?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following actions can be performed within the query builder?
A. Execute Java code.
B. Search across object stores.
C. Perform content-based retrieval.
D. Save searches in an object store.
Answer: C

IBM   000-581 examen   000-581   000-581   000-581

NO.6 For documents in which a date based property is a primary identifier, which type of partitioning will
reduce query retrieval time?
A. Date partitioning.
B. Index partitioning.
C. Interval partitioning.
D. Collection partitioning.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-581 examen   000-581

NO.7 Workplace XT hosts and manages a component that enables the Process Engine to make calls on
external components.
What is this component called?
A. PEOperations
B. Process Adaptor
C. Component Manager
D. Process Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.8 Content Search Services Client files are installed on which of the following P8 servers?
A. Content Engine.
B. Process Engine.
C. Application Engine.
D. Legacy Content Search Engine.
Answer: A

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NO.9 The Content Engine bootstrap account (ce_bootstrap_admin) is stored in the CEMPBoot.properties
file that is archived in the Content Engine EAR file. What type of account should you use for the
ce_bootstrap_admin?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B

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NO.10 How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the Composite Platform Installation Tool?
A. A tool that allows you to install P8 components only.
B. A tool that allows you to install P8 on multiple servers.
C. A tool that allows you to install P8 components remotely.
D. A tool that allows you to install P8 components on a single server, including the middleware
applications such as the database and web application server software.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What two services does the Content Engine supply? (choose two.)
A. Content storage.
B. Workflow management.
C. Life cycle management.
D. Thin client user front end.
E. User and group management.
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 FileNet Configuration Manager offers only one JDBC connection for an object store by default. What
are the two ways of adding additional JDBC connections for object stores. (choose two.)
A. It is not possible to create multiple JDBC data source.
B. Configure a new JDBC data source using the application server console.
C. Create a new profile, for the JDBC data source in FileNet Configuration Manager .
D. Add New Task "Configure Object Store JDBC Data Sources" in FileNet Configuration Manager.
E. The same JDBC data source will work for the preference object store. No need to create a new one.
Answer: B,D

IBM examen   000-581   certification 000-581   000-581   certification 000-581

NO.14 Consider the following distributed P8 configuration:
All object stores contain file storage areas and are configured for content based retrieval (CBR). A
complete offline backup of the system runs daily at 10 PM. If server A crashes at 2 PM and must be
replaced, how should the administrator recover the system?
A. Restore all files for server A from backup.
B. Restore all files for server A from backup and re-index the object stores.
C. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the database files to server C.
D. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the file storage files to the NAS device.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT reported to IBM FileNet Dashboard?
A. Remote procedure call counts and durations.
B. Number of documents stored in the Content Engine.
C. System specifications, operating system version, and product version.
D. Real-time graphing of performance data, including CPU load and memory utilization.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-581 examen   certification 000-581

NO.16 Component Manager hosts a component that can be used to execute certain content-related
operations against the Content Engine. What is this component called?
A. Event action.
B. CEOperations.
C. Integration Tier.
D. Web Application Toolkit.
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-581   000-581

NO.17 For which of the following components is it required to set session affinity (sticky session) on a load
balancer?
A. Content Engine.
B. Process Engine.
C. Application Engine.
D. Content Search Engine/Server.
Answer: C

IBM   000-581   000-581   000-581

NO.18 What are the two types of transport protocols supported by the Content Engine? (choose two.)
A. .NET
B. Enterprise Java Beans (EJB)
C. Java 2 Enterprise Edition (J2EE)
D. Content Engine Web Services (CEWS)
E. Representational State Transfer (REST)
Answer: B,D

IBM   000-581   000-581

NO.19 Which items are associated with a Content Engine site?
A. Marking sets, storage areas and virtual servers.
B. Content cache areas, add-ons and object stores.
C. Object stores, storage areas and fixed content devices.
D. Storage areas, content cache areas and virtual servers.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-581   certification 000-581   certification 000-581   000-581   000-581 examen

NO.20 Which tool is used to create a connection point to an existing Process Engine isolated region?
A. Workplace XT.
B. Process Administrator.
C. FileNet Enterprise Manager.
D. Process Configuration Console.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-572

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 Administration)

Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-570

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Implemenation )

Questions et réponses: 207 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-569

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 Implementation)

Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-646

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Sales Mastery Test v5)

Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

000-569 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-569.html

NO.1 A user can log into the Dynamic Workload Console (DWC) and access the correct panels. Which log
file helps to diagnose authentication issues within DWC when attempting to connect to an IBM Tivoli
Workload Scheduler engine?
A. NETMAN log
B. SystemErr.log
C. SystemOut.log
D. TWSMERGE log
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two instances when it is necessary to use the same lightweight third-party authentication
keys? (Choose two.)
A. When using Single Sign-on
B. When users will be using different browsers
C. when users are located in different domains
D. When using Federated Repositories with LDAP
E. When more than one instance of WebSphere Application Server is installed on the same computer
Answer: A,E

IBM   certification 000-569   000-569   000-569   000-569

NO.3 A customer is running a highly changing virtualized environment (resources obtained as needed) and
requests advice on the type of components to include in their IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 (TWS)
network. Which element is appropriate to recommend?
A. TWS dynamic agent
B. TWS fault-tolerant agent
C. TWS standard agent for virtualized data centers
D. TWS extended agent for virtualized data centers
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-569   000-569

NO.4 What is the name of the Dynamic Workload Console log file that verifies the integrity of the installation?
A. tdwc.log
B. tdwcsetup.log
C. tdwcinstall.log
D. installtdwc.log
Answer: C

IBM   000-569   000-569   certification 000-569

NO.5 Which statement is true about a dynamic pool?
A. A dynamic pool is hosted by a fault-tolerant agent.
B. A dynamic pool is hosted by a dynamic pool manager.
C. Standard Windows and UNIX/Linux jobs can run in a dynamic pool.
D. Updated dynamic pool options require a new plan to be generated before running jobs.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-569   000-569   000-569

NO.6 Which file is used to configure an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 dynamic agent?
A. ita.ini
B. config.ini
C. localopts
D. globalopts
Answer: A

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NO.7 Below is a job stream definition where conman status on fault-tolerant agent FTA1 shows that JOB1 is
SUCC and both FTA's are actively launching jobs.
SCHEDULE FTA2#LAB
:
FTA1#J0B1 FTA2#JOB2 Follows JOB1
END
What must be checked if the status of JOB2 on FTA2 shows HOLD?
A. FTA1 job limit
B. FTA1 fence limit
C. batchman process on FTA1
D. LINK status for FTA1 and FTA2
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-569   000-569   certification 000-569   000-569

NO.8 Where are the Global Security options accessed in the Dynamic Workload Console Settings panel?
A. Portlets
B. Manage Global Refresh
C. Console Preference Profiles
D. WebSphere Administrative Console
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-569 examen   000-569 examen

NO.9 The <TWS_User> account password is changed on the operating system that an IBM Tivoli Workload
Scheduler V8.6 (TWS) master domain manager is installed on. What is the next step to ensure TWS is
notified of the change?
A. restart eWAS
B. run updateWas
C. run change Password
D. nothing; the TWS V8.6 Federated User Registry automatically registers the change.
Answer: C

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NO.10 First Failure Data Capture (ffdc) logs contain what type of information?
A. event rule logs
B. eWAS stack dumps
C. database access logs
D. Tivoli Workload Scheduler ABEND information
Answer: B

IBM   000-569   000-569

NO.11 Each branch of the company sends data on the last day of the month. When the data has been received
a job stream should run. Which type of dependency is the most efficient solution for controlling processing
of job streams?
A. file dependency
B. cross dependency
C. conditional dependency
D. internetwork dependency
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which command defines the FINAL job stream in the database?
A. composer add Sfinal
B. composer load Sfinal
C. composer import Sfinal
D. composer include Sfinal
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-569 examen   000-569   000-569 examen

NO.13 What is a supported method for installing an IBM Tivoli WorMoad Scheduler V8.6 master domain
manager on UNIX or Linux?
A. twsinst
B. inst_twa.bin
C. twainstall.bin
D. launchpad.sh
Answer: D

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NO.14 A UNIX/Linux fault-tolerant agent named UNIX101 has a corrupt Symphony file. There is sufficient
space on the file system and the netman process is running. Which command should be run next?
A. cp Sinfonia Symphony
B. conman "RESETFTA UNIX101"
C. ResetPlan -scratch && JnextPlan
D. rm Symphony; conman "link UNIX101"
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which script can update the port eWAS uses to access RDBMS?
A. changeHostProperties
B. changeTraceProperties
C. changeSecurityProperties
D. changeDataSourceProperties
Answer: D

IBM   000-569   000-569 examen   000-569

NO.16 Which setting can be modified in a remote engine workstation definition?
A. TYPE
B. HOST
C. NODE
D. AGENTID
Answer: C

IBM   000-569 examen   000-569   000-569

NO.17 What is the recommended memory for an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 fault-tolerant agent?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 3 GB
D. 4 GB
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-569   000-569 examen   certification 000-569

NO.18 In the event rule management configuration, when does the port number specification (set in the
smtpServerPort option) become effective?
A. after JnextPlan
B. on the next send mail action
C. after the Event Processor is started
D. after a WebSphere Application Server restart
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-569   certification 000-569   000-569 examen   000-569 examen

NO.19 Which workstation type will run a shadow job?
A. typefta
B. type d-pool
C. type broker
D. type rem-eng
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-569   000-569 examen

NO.20 What does it mean when EAST1 is in the HOST field of an extended agent workstation definition.?
A. EAST1 is the access method name.
B. EAST1 is the extended agent's name.
C. EAST1 has the access method installed.
D. EAST1 has the target application installed.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-220

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, Administration)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-609

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Insurance Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 Exam )

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-642

Nom d'Examen: IBM (ICS Social Software Sales Mastery Test v2)

Questions et réponses: 47 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-N05

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Technical Mastery Test v1 )

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 A Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS administrator navigated to the Secure+ Admin Tool: Main
Screen?shown here: Which Connect:Direct Secure+ remote node supports the STS encryption protocol?
A. SECURE.REMOTE01
B. SECURE.REMOTE02
C. SECURE.REMOTE03
D. SECURE.REMOTE04
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-220   000-220   000-220 examen

NO.2 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows administrator needs to verify that the latest fixes have been
applied. Which option will show the release and maintenance level of the Windows node?
A. SPAdmin
B. Admin Tool
C. Message Lookup
D. Configuration Utility
Answer: B

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NO.3 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to get a list of processes that completed
successfully. The command begins with: select statistics ccode=(=,0) recids=... ; Which Record Id filters
will complete this command?
A. CTRC
B. PRED
C. PSED
D. PSTR
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-220   certification 000-220   000-220

NO.4 Which utility can be used via command line to export and import users and netmap settings in Sterling
Connect:Direct for Windows?
A. Client Connection Utility
B. Logon Configuration Utility (LCU)
C. Connect:Direct Configuration Utility
D. Connect:Direct Command Line Interface (CLI)
Answer: C

IBM   000-220   000-220   000-220   000-220

NO.5 Which of the following is supported by Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS V1 FMH flows?
A. XDR Keywords
B. Mapped DSECTS
C. ZLIB Compression
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-220   000-220   000-220

NO.6 When configuring a node in Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which field is found on the General
properties tab in the CD Admin Tool?
A. API IP Address
B. Local LU Name
C. Max PNode Sessions
D. Enable TCP/IP Support
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-220   000-220 examen

NO.7 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX in the directory /opt/connect and defined
the local node name as CDUNIX01. The administrator wants to start Connect:Direct for UNIX Command
Line Interface (CLI) client to submit a process. Which environment variable must the administrator set to
get access to this client?
A. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/direct
B. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/ndmcli
C. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/cliapi/ndmapi.cfg
D. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/CDUNIX01/initparm.cfg
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-220   000-220   000-220 examen

NO.8 An administrator wants to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX but Connect:Direct needs to run all
executing processes to completion before shutting down. Which command should be submitted?
A. stop;
B. stop step;
C. stop force;
D. stop immediate;
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-220 examen   000-220   000-220 examen

NO.9 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user is troubleshooting a problem for either changing,
deleting, selecting or terminating a process. Which diagnostic trace option should be used?
A. cmgr
B. pmgr
C. smgr
D. comm
Answer: B

IBM   000-220   certification 000-220   000-220

NO.10 One of the benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct is that it:
A. focuses on message switching.
B. utilizes proprietary data formatting.
C. provides 24 x 365 unattended operation.
D. offers manual restart through the use of email.
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-220   000-220 examen

NO.11 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?
A. ndm/lib/
B. ndm/bin/
C. ndm/cfg/cliapi/
D. ndm/cfg/cd_node/
Answer: B

IBM   000-220   000-220

NO.12 A Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX administrator needs to submit a process directly into the Execution
queue in order to bypass the Wait queue. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. submit
B. submit hold=no
C. submit retain=no
D. submit maxdelay=0
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-220   certification 000-220   000-220 examen

NO.13 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows node on a new server. The
administrator also defined new Functional Authorities for another user. When the user logs onto the
server and opens Connect:Direct Requester for the first time, the node is not displayed. The Nodes view
is empty. What should the user do in order to attach to the new node?
A. Add the new node to the netmap.
B. Contact the administrator and ask to verify access.
C. Logon to the server with the administrator's account.
D. Select Node>Connection Settings>Insert Node and enter the local node information.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-220   000-220

NO.14 A SNIFFER trace shows the following entries:
A NETSTAT display was performed. What is the correct connection state that a user should expect?
A. LAST ACK
B. FIN WAIT1
C. ESTABLISHED
D. The administrator would NOT expect to see a connection show up.
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-220   certification 000-220   000-220   000-220 examen

NO.15 A user is building a process to send a compressed ZIP archive file to a remote node. What
compression setting is most efficient and provides the best performance for this type of file?
A. COMPRESS Extended
B. COMPRESS PRIMECHAR=X'20'
C. COMPRESS Extended=(CMPrlevel=9,WINdowsize=15,MEMlevel=9)
D. No compression.
Answer: D

IBM   000-220   000-220 examen   certification 000-220   certification 000-220   certification 000-220

NO.16 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to determine the outcome of process
numbers 10 to 15. What command can retrieve this information?
A. select statistics pnumber=(10-15);
B. select statistics pnumber=(10..15);
C. select statistics pnumber=10,11,12,13,14,15;
D. select statistics pnumber=(10,11,12,13,14,15);
Answer: D

IBM   000-220 examen   000-220   certification 000-220

NO.17 Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?
A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: D

IBM   000-220   000-220   000-220   000-220   certification 000-220

NO.18 In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node
using Advanced Program to Program Communication (APPC)?
A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-220   000-220   certification 000-220   000-220   certification 000-220

NO.19 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing
environment on a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area
where the multiple nodes can place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various
nodes are aware of activity. What parameter is used to specify this?
A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-220   000-220   certification 000-220

NO.20 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows environment is installed to allow for high availability, by
assigning a virtual IP address to the cluster to which each node is then bound to. Which local node
parameter is used to specify this virtual IP address?
A. node.check
B. tcp.host.port
C. outgoing.address
D. Alternate Comminfo
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-220   000-220

IBM meilleur examen 000-332 00M-649 00M-641 00M-608, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-332

Nom d'Examen: IBM (High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2)

Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-649

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Rational Systems & Software Engineering Sales Mastery Test v2)

Questions et réponses: 36 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-641

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Exceptional Web Experience Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-608

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Retail Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a suggested sales tactic to use when a customer requests a specific point solution for their
environment, like ° j us t need an i Phone app f o r m y w ebs it e , t ha t' s a l ¡ ±
A. Refer them to Apple's website.
B. Start lowering the price of your services and software bid.
C. Invite your technical architect to tell them about developing iPhone apps.
D. Show them a demo of all the possibilities that an Exceptional Web Experience can offer them.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 00M-641   00M-641   00M-641 examen

NO.2 At a high level, WebSphere Portal allows you to _____________.
A. defragment unbuffered sectors, optimize disk storage, integrate RAID devices
B. create pivot tables, summarize column data, paste across multiple cells
C. integrate content, applications and processes; reach out to a wide variety of devices, and engage
users so they can create, target, socialize, optimize and realize.
D. color sample across images, retouch blurry photos, create freehand mask selections
Answer: C

certification IBM   00M-641   00M-641   00M-641 examen   00M-641

NO.3 What development tool can create template-based portlets as well as mobile applications for
WebSphere Portal?
A. IBM Web Content Manager
B. IBM Lotus Domino Designer
C. IBM Mashup Center
D. IBM Web Experience Factory
Answer: D

certification IBM   00M-641   00M-641

NO.4 What is a general definition of an IBM WebSphere Portal Industry Template?
A. It is a website-in-a-box
B. It is a downloadable PDF document
C. It is an introductory-priced services engagement
D. It is the fullest featured offering of WebSphere Portal
Answer: A

IBM   certification 00M-641   00M-641

NO.5 What is the name of the interactive prospecting tool that you can take your customers through to get a
sense of what they need to improve on to become a social business.?
A. WebSphere Portal Zone
B. ICAT (IBM Collaboration Assessment Tool)
C. IBM Smarter Planet
D. Lotus Greenhouse
Answer: D

IBM examen   00M-641   certification 00M-641   certification 00M-641

Le meilleur matériel de formation examen IBM COG-703 00M-652 000-M608 000-M605 000-186

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Code d'Examen: COG-703

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-652

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Curam Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-M608

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Retail Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-M605

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Automotive Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-186

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1 BPM Application Development)

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 What is one of the five major drivers for the automotive industry?
A. A dependent ecosystem
B. An independent ecosystem
C. A closed ecosystem
D. None of the above
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-M605   000-M605   000-M605   000-M605

NO.2 What product does IBM have for the customer for planning and scheduling, order management, and
tracking and tracing?
A. ILOG
B. SPSS
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Rational Application Developer
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification 000-M605   certification 000-M605   000-M605   000-M605 examen

NO.3 What does SPSS do for the customer?
A. It allows the customer to the ability to create models that understand how processes interact over time,
thus predicting problems and triggering an event to take action before the problem occurs.
B. It allows the customer to the ability to create databases that store sequential data, when used in
conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, predict database performance problems.
C. It allows the customer to the ability to create WebSphere Portal pages that display sequential data,
when used in conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, display database performance problems.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-M605   000-M605 examen   000-M605 examen   000-M605   certification 000-M605

NO.4 What is the business value of process composition?
A. It combines real-time data storage techniques that will help reduce a customers time to market delivery
schedule.
B. It focuses the real value of integrated systems into the day-to-day operational complexities of the
manufacturing line.
C. It integrates real-time, event-driven factory floor with the supply chain to improve operational
performance, asset utilization, and inventory management.
D. None of the above
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-M605 examen   000-M605 examen   certification 000-M605

NO.5 Which IBM product takes care of partner B2B in the application framework?
A. Maximo
B. COGNOS
C. SPSS
D. WPG
Answer: A

IBM   000-M605 examen   000-M605 examen   000-M605 examen

IBM 000-599 00M-665 BAS-010, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 000-599

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation)

Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-665

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Sales Mastery Test v4)

Questions et réponses: 26 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BAS-010

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM SPSS Modeler Professional v2)

Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

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00M-665 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/00M-665.html

NO.1 An example of EMC Avamar’s missing features is which of the following?
A. CDP
B. Support large Environments with a single instance
C. Clear integration with other EMC Products
D. All of the above
Answer: A

IBM   certification 00M-665   00M-665

NO.2 Which product does NOT belong to the IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage solution?
A. Tivoli Productivity Center
B. Tivoli Storage Manager
C. SAN Volume Controller
D. Flash Copy Manager
Answer: B

IBM   00M-665 examen   00M-665   certification 00M-665   00M-665

NO.3 What will the Storage Hypervisor will provide when pooling resources?
A. Better Utilization of physical servers
B. Allowing use of disk by any system on the network
C. Providing data quickly and easily to Virtual machines
D. All of the above
Answer: C

certification IBM   00M-665   certification 00M-665   00M-665

NO.4 TSM for Virtual Environments does which of the following?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Allows VMware to backup via the vStorage API
D. Provides a common set of value capabilities and centralized management on Zen
Environments
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 00M-665   00M-665 examen   00M-665

NO.5 IBM's Storage Hypervisor is named___________.
A. IBM Hypervisor
B. IBM SAN Volume Controller
C. IBMSmartCloud Virtual Storage Center
D. IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage Manager
Answer: B

IBM   00M-665   certification 00M-665   00M-665 examen   00M-665

NO.6 TSM's new support for z/OS provides which of the following?
A. Direct access to open systems tape
B. Data mobility between zOS and PASE
C. Ability to share mainframe tape with the open systems environment
Answer: A

IBM   00M-665   00M-665 examen

NO.7 What Common capabilities does a storage Hypervisor provide?
A. Encryption
B. Can increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver
C. Thin provisioning
D. Scheduling
Answer: C

IBM examen   00M-665   00M-665 examen   00M-665 examen   00M-665   00M-665 examen

NO.8 Server Hypervisor's do NOT provide which of the following?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Virtual machines are mobile giving CIO's their choice of physical server device
D. Acommon set of value capabilities and centralized management are provided for virtual
machines regardless of what physical server they are sitting on
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification 00M-665   certification 00M-665   certification 00M-665

NO.9 Which of the follow is IBM's entrance into the "Storage Hypervisor" market?
A. IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage Center
B. Tivoli Storage Hypervisor Manager
C. Tivoli Smart Storage Manager
D. Flash Copy Manager for Virtual Environments
Answer: A

certification IBM   00M-665   00M-665   00M-665

NO.10 What did doubling the capacity of the TSM server Database provide?
A. TADDAM support
B. Integration into VMware
C. Allows us to manage more data then any other product on the market
D. Limits the growth of the environment
Answer: C

certification IBM   00M-665   00M-665 examen

IBM meilleur examen 00M-503 LOT-441J LOT-440J 000-400, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 00M-503

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Power Systems with IBM i Technical Sales Professional - v2 (00M-503))

Questions et réponses: 48 Q&As

Code d'Examen: LOT-441J

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Social Software & Unified Communications Fundamentals (LOT-441日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 121 Q&As

Code d'Examen: LOT-440J

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal & Portal Products Fundamentals (LOT-440日本語版))

Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-400

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Operational Decision Management V8.0 Application Development)

Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

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NO.1 An application developer must implement verbalization changes in a rule project. This rule
project: is primarily maintained by rule authors in Decision Center which is the source of record
("source of
truth").
is not present in the application developer's Rule Designer workspace.
does not have any dependency to or from any other rule project.
contains historical versions of rules that should be retained.
What should the application developer do?
A. Publish the rule project to a Rule Solutions for Office RuleDoc, implement rule changes and
update
Decision Center
B. Create a new "Rule Project from Decision Center" in Rule Designer, implement verbalization
changes
and publish to Decision Center
C. Create a new "Rule Project" in Rule Designer, synchronize it with the rule project from Decision
Center,
implement verbalization changes and publish to Decision Center
D. Choose "Export Current Project State" in Decision Center, import the ".zip" file in Rule Designer,
implement verbalization changes, delete the Decision Center rule project and import it back with a
".zip"
file exported from Rule Designer
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification 000-400   000-400 examen   000-400 examen

NO.2 Decision Center contains the following:
Two rule projects: CorporateRiskAssessment and NewYorkRiskAssessment.
One RuleApp RiskAssessmentRuleApp with a single ruleset CorporateRiskAssessmentRuleset.
An application developer needs to deploy the NewYorkRiskAssessment rule project to Rule
Execution
Server as a separate ruleset. Updates to NewYorkRiskAssessment need to be deployed in a single
action with updates to CorporateRiskAssessment. How should the application developer setup the
RuleApp structure in Decision Center to accomplish these requirements?
A. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, click Deploy to add the NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
B. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, click New to create a new NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
C. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, select RiskAssessmentRuleApp and click Edit to add the
NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset ruleset.
D. Select the NewYorkRiskAssessment rule project on the Home tab, and under Project > Manage
Subbranches and Baselines > Baselines, click New to add the NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
Answer: C

IBM   000-400   000-400   000-400   000-400

NO.3 An application developer is in charge of synchronizing changes in a rule project between
Decision
Center and the Source Code Control (SCC) tool used for development. Which rule project artifacts
should
the application developer exclude from SCC?
A. resources and templates folders
B. resources folder and .syncEntries file
C. output folder and .syncEntries file
D. output, templates and queries folders
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-400   000-400   000-400   000-400

Les meilleures HP HP0-M16 HP0-M15 HP0-W03 HP0-P16 HP0-S01 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M16

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Quick Test Professional 9.2 Software)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-M15

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Quality Center 9.2 Software)

Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-W03

Nom d'Examen: HP (Advanced SAN Architeture)

Questions et réponses: 74 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-P16

Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Design of HP 9000/HP Integrity Server Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S01

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP AssetCenter v5 x Software Exam)

Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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NO.1 When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested. When
writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select
two.)
A. specify all actual results
B. use parameters in the step names
C. specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. use the numbering system for the step names
E. use consistent terminology throughout the test
Answer: CE

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NO.2 Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
Answer: D

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NO.3 When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the parameters?
A. values are assigned from within the calling test
B. values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. values are assigned during test design or execution
D. values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
Answer: C

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NO.4 What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
A. test cases
B. repository
C. load test
D. defects
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where can you link tests to requirements?
A. from the Test Lab module
B. from the Requirements module
C. on the test details page (Test Plan)
D. on the attachments page (Test Plan)
Answer: B

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NO.7 What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
Answer: CE

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NO.8 How is a test configured as a template test?
A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
Answer: C

HP   HP0-M15   HP0-M15   HP0-M15   HP0-M15

NO.9 What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
Answer: BC

HP examen   HP0-M15   HP0-M15

NO.10 What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
A. make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject
path
D. select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic
conversion
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J14

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks ASE 2008 Delta Exam)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S16

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem)

Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-J23

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-J18

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 206 Q&As

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NO.1 Where is the MSA Storage Management Utility web server located?
A.on each of MSA controller modules
B.on the master MSA controller module
C.on the SAN management server
D.on any server connected to the SAN
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 What are high availability features of a SAN? (Select two.)
A.online storage migration
B.backup multiplexing
C.dynamic failover protection
D.LAN-free backup
E.storage server clustering
ANSWER: CE

HP   certification HP0-J23   HP0-J23   HP0-J23   HP0-J23   HP0-J23

NO.3 Which data backup features are introduced as part of a SAN? (Select three.)
A.reduction of congestion
B.elimination of single point of failure
C.elimination of database downtime for backup
D.efficient utilization of storage resources
E.reduction of power outage risk in the storage network
F.improvements of backup window
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.4 Which disk drive technology is best suited to sequential-access data and secondary storage
applications within an MSA2000 Family array system?
A.SCSI
B.SAS
C.FATA
D.SATA
E.FC SCSI
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 Your customer wants to share data among many servers in their LAN.
Which storage solution is most suitable for this customer?
A.Network Attached Storage
B.Internet SCSI
C.Storage Area Network
D.Fibre Channel over IP
ANSWER: A

HP   certification HP0-J23   HP0-J23

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which function does a Network Storage Router (NSR) provide?
A.backup accelerator for 2Gb SANs
B.two-stage backup capabilities for SAN environments
C.Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge
D.data encryption to the tape device
ANSWER: C

HP   certification HP0-J23   HP0-J23   HP0-J23   HP0-J23

NO.7 What is the maximum number of hosts that can be connected to an MSA2012fc?
A.16
B.32
C.64
D.128
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Which component enables access to block storage on a Fibre Channel SAN across an
Ethernet network?
A.Fibre Channel Switch
B.Ethernet Switch
C.iSCSI to Fibre Channel bridge
D.FC-IP gateway connector
ANSWER: C

HP   HP0-J23 examen   HP0-J23

NO.9 What is the Recovery Point Objective?
A.the amount of data that must be recovered
B.the amount of time the restoration takes for all data
C.the amount of data you can afford to lose
D.the amount of time you can afford to be without the data
ANSWER: C

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NO.10 Which technologies are used to transmit data over IP networks? (Select two.)
A.FC-over-ATM
B.iSCSI
C.FC-IP
D.ESCON
E.FICON
ANSWER: AE

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NO.11 How many volume copies and snapshots are supported when using an MSA2012i storage array?
A.64 volume copies and 64 snapshots
B.64 volume copies and 128 snapshots
C.128 volume copies and 64 snapshots
D.128 volume copies and 128 snapshots
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 Click the Task button. Click on the area where a post configuration successful (green) message would
appear.
Answer:

NO.13 How does the Storage Management Utility distinguish users while they are connected to an MSA2000
Family Modular Smart Array controller?
A.by name of the connected user
B.by IP address of the connected client
C.by WWN of the management host
D.by certificate issued by the Storage Management Utility
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 Which action is performed by MultiPath I/O if the Device Specific Module (DSM) returns
an inactive path to the system?
A.The automatic load balancing policy is disabled.
B.Load balancing policy is reduced by this path.
C.A path failover is initiated.
D.The inactive path is verified again.
ty
ANSWER: C

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NO.15 How many ports are available on an HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN switch base system?
A.12
B.16
C.20
D.28
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 What is a Recovery Time Objective?
A.maximum duration of data restore per system
B.maximum acceptable time interval for business data unavailability
C.maximum time frame for restoring data of all systems
D.maximum time frame for data loss in case of failure
ANSWER: B

HP   certification HP0-J23   certification HP0-J23

NO.17 What are benefits of storage consolidation to a customer? (Select two.)
A.regular, mandatory maintenance hours
B.more efficient storage growth
C.higher availability through decentralized storage pools
D.better disk capacity utilization than DAS
E.eliminates the need for a backup
ANSWER: CE

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NO.18 You are specifying a storage solution for your customer, but the customer has limited skills to configure
the solution. The MSA2012fc has a new feature called Automatic Virtual Disk Creation which will help the
customer configure the array.
What must you ensure when specifying the solution?
A.Only one type of disk (SAS or SATA) is specified.
B.Only SAS drives are specified.
C.The solution is a dual controller solution.
D.A minimum of two disk enclosures is connected.
ANSWER: A

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NO.19 Which physical or logical storage components can be managed using the HP StorageWorks MSA2000
Family Storage Management Utility? (Select three.)
A.virtual disks
B.disk groups
C.replication groups
D.pre-fetch cache
E.master volumes
F.drive modules
ANSWER: AEF

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NO.20 What are key features of the MSA2012i? (Select three.)
A.support for up to 64 hosts
B.controller-based replication capability
C.support for up to 16 servers
D.snapshot and clone capability
E.automated active/passive failover
F.hardware active/active failover
ANSWER: CDF

HP   HP0-J23   certification HP0-J23

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S25

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers)

Questions et réponses: 213 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-J37

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing XP24000, XP20000, XP12000, XP10000)

Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-T11

Nom d'Examen: HP (Industry Standard)

Questions et réponses: 142 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP2-E17

Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Essential of HP Enterprise Products)

Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-P21

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Advanced System Administration)

Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S23

Nom d'Examen: HP (Design and Implementation of HP Systems Insight Manager v5.3)

Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 Which properties can be adjusted in the files of the directory /etc/default? (Select four.)
A. time zone
B. new user properties
C. volume manager properties
D. IP addresses for the network interfaces
E. password format policy
F. configuration of the ip_forwarding parameter
G. default kernel parameters
H. maximum sys log size
Answer: ABEH

HP examen   HP0-P21   certification HP0-P21   HP0-P21 examen

NO.2 Which command should you use to determine the status of a LUN path?
A. ioscan
B. scsimgr
C. olrad
D. rad
Answer: A

HP   HP0-P21   HP0-P21   HP0-P21

NO.3 Which command should you run to look at the detailed status of a package called pkg1?
A. cmgetconf -v pkg1
B. cmviewconf -v pkg1
C. cmquerycl -v pkg1
D. cmviewcl -v -p pkg1
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your /home file system mounted on /dev/vg01/lvol4 is running out of space. Which command
should you use to determine which directory has the largest files?
A. du -k /dev/vg01/lvol4
B. du -ak /home
C. du -as /home
D. du -a /dev/vg01/lvol4
Answer: B

HP examen   HP0-P21   HP0-P21 examen

NO.5 Which VxVM daemons need to be running for the volume manager to function correctly?
A. vxfsd, vxiod, vxvmd
B. vxfsd, vxiod, vxnotify
C. vxconfigd, vxdctl, vxiod
D. vxconfigd, vxiod, vxrelocd, vxnotify
Answer: D

HP   HP0-P21   HP0-P21

NO.6 You previously set up HP SIM to use username/password authentication with account "wbemacc"
for the WBEM protocol for all of your managed systems. Your site has a policy that user passwords
must change every three months. It also configures PAM to lock out an account after three invalid
password attempts. What are ways to specify a new password before re-running "Identify Systems"?
(Select two.)
A. Invoke mxwbemsub a -c wbemacc:newpass.
B. For each system, invoke mxnodesecurity -a -n <hostname> -p WBEM -c wbemacc:newpass.
C. Use the HP SIM Options->Protocol Settings->Global Protocol Settings menu item.
D. Select all the systems and use the HP SIM Options->Protocol Settings->System Protocol Settings
menu item.
Answer: BD

HP examen   certification HP0-P21   HP0-P21

NO.7 Which file do you edit in order to change the behavior of the syslogd daemon?
A. /etc/syslogd.conf file
B. /etc/syslog.conf file
C. /etc/rc.config.d/syslogd.conf file
D. /var/adm/syslog.conf file
Answer: B

HP examen   certification HP0-P21   HP0-P21

NO.8 What is a characteristic of the Memory File System (MemFS)?
A. It supports /tmp and /var/tmp to be used as a MemFS.
B. It swaps data to swap space when the system is under memory pressure.
C. It uses disk devices to store compressed data.
D. Data in MemFS remain persistent after unmounts and reboots.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are the key benefits of the 11i v3 Mass Storage Stack? (Select two.)
A. improved security capabilities
B. dramatic I/O performance improvements
C. improved PVLinks for multipathing
D. simplified management and automatic configuration
Answer: BD

HP   certification HP0-P21   HP0-P21

NO.10 Management purchases an Integrity Superdome to replace two HP rp8420 Servers. There is available
CPU capacity and management decides to bring additional applications for execution on the Integrity
Superdome. Based on this scenario, which statements can be true? (Select two.)
A. Some of the applications are Linux-based and Linux applications are not supported to run on an
Integrity Superdome.
B. Some of the applications are Linux-based and Linux applications will run in an HP Integrity Virtual
Machine on an Integrity Superdome.
C. Some of the applications are Windows-based that run alongside HP-UX applications in a different
vPar inside of an Integrity Superdome.
D. Some of the applications are Windows-based that run alongside HP-UX applications in a different
nPar inside of an Integrity Superdome.
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Which functions does the idisk command perform? (Select two.)
A. lists the EFI partition table on a disk
B. creates a new partition table based on the /tmp/idtable file
C. validates the EFI partition information
D. allows the creation of up to 16 partitions
E. lists the usable blocks available for partitioning
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which statements are true about threads and processes for a system running HP-UX? (Select three.)
A. A thread can have multiple processes.
B. The kernel parameter max_thread_proc defines the maximum number of concurrent threads
allowed per process.
C. A thread can be killed using the kill command.
D. The kernel parameter nkthread limits the number of threads allowed to run simultaneously,
system-wide.
E. A process can have multiple threads.
F. A thread is similar to a process, but cannot be switched to a different CPU.
Answer: BDE

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NO.13 Which LVM feature does Service guard use?
A. delayed activation
B. inclusive activation
C. exclusive activation
D. temporary activation
Answer: C

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NO.14 What are the major advantages of the new Mass Storage Stack of HP-UX 11i v3 compared to
previous HP-UX versions? (Select two.)
A. Device Files are bound to Physical Hardware Paths or LUNs.
B. A significantly larger number of devices can be connected to a single system.
C. When moving devices to different FC switch ports, manual intervention during LVM configuration
is not required.
D. The I/O paths switch transparently in the event of a failure.
E. The Agile Device Files are based on the LUN world wide ID (WWID) address.
Answer: BE

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NO.15 You have set up a Service guard cluster but received notification from network security that the
current configuration exposes remote user login risks and must be remediated. Which file should be
set up to eliminate the risk?
A. /etc/hosts.equiv
B. /etc/cmcluster/cmclconfig
C. $HOME/.rhosts
D. /etc/cmcluster/cmclnodelist
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are performing an HP-UX cold installation using the advanced option. Which parameters can you
set on the System Menu tab.? (Select three.)
A. hostname
B. user passwords (non-root)
C. files systems
D. additional interfaces
E. software file sets
F. time zone
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.17 What are valid statements when referring to changing system run levels? (Select two.)
A. Run level 1 is the same as single user mode.
B. Run level 5 is the default run level for newly installed servers.
C. The init command can be used to interactively change run levels.
D. Default networking is started in run level 1.
E. The command shutdown can place the system in single user mode.
Answer: CE

HP   certification HP0-P21   HP0-P21

NO.18 What are the benefits of the Service guard Storage Management Suite on HP-UX 11i v3? (Select
two.)
A. enables Oracle ASM to run within a file system
B. maintains service levels through the integration with VSE
C. offers tighter integration of Veritas Cluster Server on HP-UX
D. allows for heterogeneous platform support with a single solution
E. enables Oracle RAC customers to get the manageability of a file system
F. provides a single storage management solution to manage all applications
Answer: B, E, F

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NO.19 You just installed a new HP-UX server named wildcat on your company intranet. You have Ignite-UX
running on a server named ignite_server. What must you do to create a recovery image for the new
server? (Select two.)
A. Ensure the new server has sufficient space in /var.
B. Install Ignite-UX on wildcat.
C. Check the log files in wildcat.
D. Run make_net_recovery -s ignite_server on wildcat.
E. Check the log files in ignite_server.
Answer: BD

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NO.20 Which kernel parameter defines the maximum amount of physical memory that can be used for
caching file I/O data?
A. bufpages
B. filecache_max
C. dbc_max_pct
D. nbuf
Answer: B

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